NATIONAL
SENIOR CERTIFICATE
GRADE 12
SEPTEMBER 2023
BUSINESS STUDIES P1
MARKING GUIDELINE
MARKS: 150
This marking guideline consists of 27 pages.
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Business StudiesP1 Memo Sept2023 English_hlayiso.com_.pdf
Business Studies · Grade 12 · EC Prelim · 2023 · English. Memorandum, 27 pages. Read online or download the PDF.
- Subject
- Business Studies
- Grade
- Grade 12
- Language
- English
- Document type
- Memorandum
- Year
- 2023
- Exam period
- EC Prelim
- Pages
- 27
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2 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
NOTES TO MARKERS
PREAMBLE
The notes to markers are provided for quality assurance purposes to ensure
the following:
(a) Fairness, consistency and reliability in the standard of marking
(b) Facilitate the moderation of candidates' scripts at the different
levels
(c) Streamline the marking process considering the broad spectrum of
markers across the country
(d) Implement appropriate measures in the teaching, learning and
assessment of the subject at schools/institutions of learning
1. For marking and moderation purposes, the following colours are
recommended:
Marker: Red
School moderation: Green
District moderation: Orange
Provincial moderation: Purple
2. Candidates’ responses must be in full sentences for SECTIONS B and C.
However, this would depend on the nature of the question.
3. A comprehensive marking guideline has been provided but this is by no
means exhaustive. Due consideration should be given to an answer that is
correct but:
• Uses a different expression from that which appears in the marking
guideline
• Comes from another credible source
• Original
• A different approach is used
NOTE: There is only ONE correct answer in SECTION A.
4. Take note of other relevant answers provided by candidates and allocate
marks accordingly. (In cases where the answer is unclear or indicates some
understanding, part-marks should be awarded, for example, one mark
instead of the maximum of two marks.)
5. The word ‘Sub-max.’ is used to facilitate the allocation of marks within a
question or sub-question.
6. The purpose of circling marks (guided by ‘max.’ in the breakdown of marks)
on the right-hand side is to ensure consistency and accuracy in the marking
of scripts as well as for calculation and moderation purposes.
7. Subtotals to questions must be written in the right-hand margin. Circle the
subtotals as indicated by the allocation of marks. This must be guided by
‘max.’ in the marking guidelines. Only the total for each question should
appear in the left-hand margin next to the appropriate question number.
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 3
8. In an indirect question, the theory as well as the response must be relevant
and related to the question.
9. Correct numbering of answers to questions or sub questions is
recommended in SECTIONS A and B. However, if the numbering is
incorrect, follow the sequence of the candidate’s responses. Candidates will
be penalised if the latter is not clear.
10. No additional credit must be given for repetition of facts. Indicate with an ‘R’.
11. The differentiation between ‘evaluate’ and ‘critically evaluate’ can be
explained as follows:
11.1 When ‘evaluate’ is used, candidates are expected to respond in
either a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and
negative) stance, e.g. Positive: ‘COIDA eliminates time and costs
spent √ on lengthy civil court proceedings.’ √
11.2 When ‘critically evaluate’ is used, candidates are expected to
respond in either a positive/negative manner or take a neutral
(positive and negative) stance. In this instance candidates are also
expected to support their responses with more depth, e.g. ‘COIDA
eliminates time and costs spent √ on lengthy civil court proceedings,
√ because the employer will not be liable for compensation to the
employee for injuries sustained during working hours as long as it
can be proved that the business was not negligent.’ √
NOTE: 1. The above could apply to ‘analyse’ as well.
2. Note the placing of the tick (√) in the allocation of marks.
12. The allocation of marks must be informed by the nature of the question,
cognitive verb used, mark allocation in the marking guideline and the context
of each question.
Cognitive verbs, such as:
12.1 Advise, name, state, outline, motivate, recommend, suggest, (list not
exhaustive) do not usually require much depth in candidates’
responses. Therefore, the mark allocation for each
statement/answer appears at the end.
12.2 Define, describe, explain, discuss, elaborate, distinguish,
differentiate, compare, tabulate, analyse, evaluate, critically evaluate
(list not exhaustive) require a greater depth of understanding,
application and reasoning. Therefore, the marks must be allocated
more objectively to ensure that assessing is conducted according to
established norms so that uniformity, consistency and fairness are
achieved.
13. Mark only the FIRST answer where candidates offer more than one answer
for SECTION B and C questions that require one answer.
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4 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
14. SECTION B
14.1 If for example, FIVE facts are required, mark the candidate’s FIRST
FIVE responses and ignore the rest of the responses. Indicate by
drawing a line across the unmarked portion.
NOTE: 1. This applies only to questions where the number of facts
is specified.
2. The above also applies to responses in SECTION C
(where applicable).
14.2 If two facts are written in one sentence, award the candidate FULL
credit. Point 14.1 above still applies.
14.3 If candidates are required to provide their own examples/views,
brainstorm this to finalise alternative answers.
14.4 Use of the cognitive verbs and allocation of marks:
14.4.1 If the number of facts are specified, questions that require
candidates to 'describe/discuss/explain' may be marked as
follows:
• Fact 2 marks (or as indicated in the marking guidelines)
• Explanation 1 mark (two marks will be allocated in
SECTION C)
The ‘fact’ and ‘explanation’ are given separately in the
marking guideline to facilitate mark allocation.
14.4.2 If the number of facts required is not specified, the allocation
of marks must be informed by the nature of the question and
the maximum mark allocated in the marking guideline.
14.5 ONE mark may be awarded for answers that are easy to recall,
requires one-word answers or is quoted directly from a
scenario/case study. This applies to SECTIONS B and C in
particular (where applicable).
15. SECTION C
15.1 The breakdown of the mark allocation for the essays is as follows:
Introduction
Maximum:
Content
32
Conclusion
Insight 8
TOTAL 40
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 5
15.2 Insight consists of the following components:
Layout/Structure Is there an introduction, a body, and a conclusion? 2
Analysis and Is the candidate able to break down the question into 2
interpretation headings/subheadings/interpret it correctly to show
understanding of what is being asked?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
All headings addressed: 1 (One 'A')
Interpretation (16 to 32 marks): 1 (One 'A')
Synthesis Are there relevant decisions/facts/responses made based 2
on the questions?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
Option 1: Only relevant facts: 2 marks (No '-S')
Where a candidate answers 50% or more (two
to four sub-questions) of the question with only
relevant facts; no '-S' appears in the left margin.
Award the maximum of TWO (2) marks for
synthesis.
Option 2: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One '-S')
Where a candidate answers less than 50% (only
one sub-question) of the question with only OR
some relevant facts; one '-S' appears in the left
margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1) mark for
synthesis.
Option 3: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One '-S')
Where a candidate writes FOUR questions, but
one sub-question of the question with no
relevant facts; one ‘-S’ appears in the left
margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1) mark for
synthesis.
Option 4: No relevant facts: 0 marks (Two '-S')
Where a candidate answers less than 50% (only
one sub-question) of the question with no
relevant facts; two '-S' appear in the left margin.
Award a ZERO mark for synthesis.
Originality Is there evidence of one or two examples, not older than two 2
(2) years that are based on recent information, current
trends and developments?
TOTAL FOR INSIGHT: 8
TOTAL MARKS FOR FACTS: 32
TOTAL MARKS FOR ESSAY (8 + 32): 40
NOTE: 1. No marks will be awarded for contents repeated from the
introduction and conclusion.
2. The candidate forfeits marks for layout if the words
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not stated.
3. No marks will be awarded for layout, if the headings
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not supported by an
explanation.
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6 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
15.3 Indicate insight in the left-hand margin with a symbol e.g. (‘L, A, -S and/or
O’).
15.4 The breakdown of marks is indicated at the end of the suggested answer/
marking guideline to each question.
15.5 Mark all relevant facts until the SUB MAX/MAX mark in a subsection has
been attained. Write SUB MAX/MAX after maximum marks have been
obtained but continue reading for originality “O”.
15.6 At the end of each essay indicate the allocation of marks for facts and
marks for insight as follows: (L – Layout, A – Analysis, S – Synthesis, O –
Originality) as in the table below.
CONTENT MARKS
Facts 32 (max.)
L 2
A 2
S 2
O 2
TOTAL 40
15.7 When awarding marks for facts, take note of the sub-maxima indicated,
especially if candidates do not make use of the same subheadings.
Remember, headings and subheadings are encouraged and contribute to
insight (structuring/logical flow/sequencing) and indicate clarity of thought.
(See MARK BREAKDOWN at the end of each question.)
15.8 If the candidate identifies/interprets the question INCORRECTLY, then
he/she may still obtain marks for layout.
15.9 If a different approach is used by candidates, ensure that the answers are
assessed according to the mark allocation/subheadings as indicated in
the marking guideline.
15.10 15.10.1 Award TWO marks for complete sentences. Award ONE mark
for phrases, incomplete sentences and vague answers.
15.10.2 With effect from November 2015, the TWO marks will not
necessarily appear at the end of each completed sentence. The
ticks (√) will be separated and indicated next to each fact, e.g.
‘Product development is a growth strategy, √ where businesses
aim to introduce new products into existing markets.’ √
This will be informed by the nature and context of the question,
as well as the cognitive verb used.
15.11 With effect from November 2017, the maximum of TWO (2) marks for facts
shown as headings in the marking guidelines, will not necessarily apply to
each question. This would also depend on the nature of the question.
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 7
SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1 1.1.1 B √√
1.1.2 A √√
1.1.3 D √√
1.1.4 A √√
1.1.5 C √√
(5 x 2) (10)
1.2 1.2.1 BBBEE Act √√
1.2.2 micro √√
1.2.3 interview √√
1.2.4 act as needed √√
1.2.5 total quality management √√
(5 x 2) (10)
1.3 1.3.1 F √√
1.3.2 I √√
1.3.3 G √√
1.3.4 E √√
1.3.5 B √√
(5 x 2) (10)
TOTAL SECTION A: 30
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 1 MARKS
1.1 10
1.2 10
1.3 10
TOTAL 30
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8 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
SECTION B
Mark the answers to the FIRST TWO questions only.
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
2.1 Types of diversification strategies
- Concentric diversification √
- Horizontal diversification √
- Conglomerate diversification √
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
(2 x 1) (2)
2.2 Advantages of intensive strategies
- Increase in sales/income/profitability due to a variety of advertising
campaigns √√
- Regular sales to existing customers may increase. √√
- Gain customer loyalty through effective promotion campaigns. √√
- Improved service delivery may positively impact/increase sales. √√
- Eliminates competitors and dominates market prices. √√
- Decrease in price could influence customers to buy more products. √√
- Businesses can have more control over the price of products/services. √√
- Enables the business to focus on markets/well researched quality
products that satisfy the needs of consumers. √√
- Increased market share reduces the business’s vulnerability to actions of
competitors. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of intensive
strategies.
Max. (6)
2.3 Business strategies
2.3.1 Type of integration strategy from the scenario
Backward integration/Backward vertical integration √√ (2)
2.3.2 Steps in strategy evaluation
- Examine the underlying basis √ of a business strategy. √
- Look forward and backwards √ into the implementation process. √
- Compare the expected performance √ with the actual performance. √
- Determine the reasons for deviations √ and analyse these reasons. √
- Take corrective action √ so that deviations may be corrected. √
- Set specific dates for control √ and follow up. √
- Draw up a table √ of the advantages and disadvantages of a strategy. √
- Decide on the desired outcome √ as envisaged when strategies were
implemented. √
- Consider the impact of the strategic implementation √ in the internal and
external environments of the business. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the steps in strategy evaluation.
NOTE: Accept steps in any order.
Max. (6)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 9
2.4 Purpose of Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases
Amendment Act/COIDA
- Provides a comprehensive protection to employees √ who injured in the
course of performing their duties. √
- COIDA applies to all casual and full-time workers √ who become
ill/injured/disabled/killed due to a workplace accident/disease. √
- It excludes workers √ who are guilty of wilful misconduct/workers working
outside South Africa for at least twelve months/members of the SA
Defence Force/Police services. √
- It provides for the establishment of a Compensation Board √ whose
function is to advise the Minister of Labour on the application/provisions of
COIDA. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of COIDA.
Max. (6)
2.5 Legislation
2.5.1 Ways to comply with Employment Equity Act/EEA from the
scenario
- The management prepared an employment equity plan in
consultation with employees. √
- They also implemented affirmative action measures promoting
diversity in the workplace. √
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Only award marks for responses that were quoted
from the scenario.
(2 x 1) (2)
2.5.2 Impact of the Employment Equity Act/EEA on businesses
Positives/Advantages
- Encourages consultation √ between employer and employees. √
- Promotes equal opportunity √ and fair treatment in the
workplace. √
- Impacts positively √ on BEE ratings for businesses. √
- Appointment process is clearly defined, √ so all parties are well
informed. √
- Motivates employees because the workforce √ is more diverse/
representative/inclusive. √
- Motivates employees because everyone has √ the same
employment opportunities. √
- Promotes the implementation of affirmative action measures √ to
redress the imbalances in employment. √
- Provides employees with legal recourse, √ if they have been
unfairly discriminated against. √
- Provides all employees with an equal opportunity √ to be
selected/appointed/promoted in a position. √
- Prevents unfair discrimination √ as it ensures that the workforce
represents the demographics of the country. √
- Creates a framework √ of acceptable employment practices/
affirmative action measures. √
- Encourages diversity in business √ by employing people from
various racial backgrounds. √
- Businesses are in a better position √ to negotiate contracts with
the government. √
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10 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
- Certified psychometric tests may be used √ to assess
applicants/employees to ensure that they are suitable for the
vacancy. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/ advantages
of the EEA on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Expensive to train/employ √ someone who knows little about the Act.
√
- Fines/Penalties for non-compliant businesses √ may be expensive for
the business. √
- Diversity in the workplace √ may lead to conflict/unhappiness. √
- Often positions go unfilled √ because there are no suitable
Employment Equity candidates. √
- Skilled people from designated groups may demand higher
salaries, √ which increase salary expenses. √
- Job hopping of skilled/trained Employment Equity appointees√ may
increase staff turnover. √
- Increased administration burden, √ as businesses must
compile/submit employment equity reports every two years. √
- Employers have to appoint one or more senior managers to ensure
the implementation of the plan, √ which increases salary expenditure.
√
- Businesses must submit a compliance certificate √ before they can
conduct business with state businesses. √
- Businesses are sometimes pressurised to appoint an unsuitable
Employment Equity person √ to meet Employment Equity
requirements. √
- Other groups may not respect the knowledge/skills/experience of an
Employment Equity appointment√ and it may lead to conflict.√
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/
disadvantages of the EEA on businesses.
Max. (6)
2.6 Penalties that businesses may face for non-compliance with the NCA
- Businesses may not demand payment, √ sue or attach the
clients/consumers salaries/assets. √
- Business may not charge any fee/interest√/other charges under that specific
credit agreement. √
- Court may declare the granting of credit by the business reckless √ and may
order consumers not to repay the credit/or part thereof to the business. √
- National Credit Regulator may impose a fine/penalty √ on the business for
non-compliance. √
- Business will bear all costs of removing the negative information of
clients √/ consumers who were blacklisted as a result of reckless lending. √
- Any other relevant answer related to penalties that businesses may face for
non-compliance with the National Credit Act.
Max. (6)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 11
2.7 Application of power of the suppliers as a force of the Porter’s Five
Forces model
- Suppliers that deliver high quality products, may have power over the
business. √√
- Assess the power of the suppliers in influencing prices. √√
- The more powerful the suppliers, the less control the business has over
them. √√
- The smaller the number of suppliers, the more powerful they may be as the
choice of suppliers may be limited. √√
- Assess the kind of power suppliers’ have in terms of quality
services/reliability/ability to make prompt deliveries. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to how businesses could apply power of
suppliers as a force of Porter's Five Forces model to analyse their position
in the market environment.
Max. (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 2 MARKS
2.1 2
2.2 6
2.3.1 2
2.3.2 6
2.4 6
2.5.1 2
2.5.2 6
2.6 6
2.7 4
TOTAL 40
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12 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
QUESTION 3: BUSINESS OPERATIONS
3.1 Sources of external recruitment
- Recruitment agencies √
- Billboards √
- Printed media such as newspapers/flyers/pamphlets/magazines/posters/
government gazette √
- Electronic media such as radio/internet/TV √
- Social media/Social networks/Business websites√
- Walk-ins √
- Head hunting √
- Professional associations √
- Networking √
- Educational/Training institutions √
- Word-of-mouth √
- Any other relevant answer related to sources of external recruitment.
NOTE: Mark the first THREE (3) only. (3 x 1) (3)
3.2 Placement procedure as a human resource activity
- Businesses should outline the specific responsibilities of the new position,
including the expectations/skills required for this position. √√
- Determine the successful candidates’ strengths/weaknesses/
interests/skills by subjecting him/her to a range of psychometric tests. √√
- Determine the relationship between the position and the competencies of
the new candidate. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the placement procedure as a human
resource activity.
Max. (4)
3.3 Methods of recruitment
3.3.1 Method of recruitment from the scenario
Internal recruitment √√ (2)
Motivation
Hope Logistics advertised a vacancy for a manager on their business
noticeboard. √ (1)
NOTE: Do not award marks for the motivation if the method
of recruitment was incorrectly identified.
Max. (3)
3.3.2 Advantages of fringe benefits for businesses
- Attractive fringe benefit packages √ may result in higher employee
retention/reduces employee turnover. √
- Attracts qualified/skilled/experienced employees √ who may
positively contribute towards the business goals/objectives. √
- Improves productivity √ resulting in higher profitability. √
- It increases employee satisfaction/loyalty/morale, √ as they may be
willing to go the extra mile. √
- Businesses save money √ as benefits are tax deductible. √
- Fringe benefits can be used as leverage √ for salary
negotiations. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of fringe
benefits for businesses.
Max. (4)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 13
3.4 Role of the interviewer before the interview
- Book and prepare √ the venue for the interview. √
- Inform all shortlisted candidates √ about the date and place of the
interview. √
- Set the interview date, √ and ensure that all interviews take place on the
same date, if possible. √
- Notify all panel members conducting the interview √ about the date and
place of the interview. √
- Develop a core set of questions √ based on the skills/knowledge/ability
required. √
- Check/read the application/verify the CV of every candidate √ for anything
that may need to be explained. √
- Plan the programme for the interview √ and determine the time that
should be allocated to each candidate. √
- Allocate the same amount of time √ to interview each candidate on the
program. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the role of the interviewer before the
interview.
Max. (6)
3.5 Quality indicators of the production function
- Provide high quality services/products according to specifications. √√
- The production/operating processes of a business should be done
correctly through proper production planning and control. √√
- Products and services should be produced at the lowest possible cost to
allow for profit maximisation. √√
- Businesses should clearly communicate the roles and responsibilities to
the production workforce. √√
- Products must meet customers' requirements by being safe, reliable
and durable. √√
- Businesses should have good after-sales services and warrantees. √√
- Empower workers so that they can take pride in their workmanship. √√
- Get accreditation from the SABS/ISO 9001 to ensure that quality
products are being produced. √√
- Specify the product or service standards and take note of the factors
that consumers use to judge quality. √√
- Monitor processes and find the root causes of production problems. √√
- Implement quality control systems to ensure that quality products are
consistently being produced. √√
- Utilise machines and equipment optimally. √√
- Accurately calculate the production costs. √√
- Select the appropriate production system such as mass/batch/jobbing. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the quality indicators of the
production function.
Max. (4)
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14 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
3.6 Impact of total quality management/TQM if poorly implemented
3.6.1 Impact of TQM if poorly implemented from the scenario
- The reputation of RS is suffering because of poor quality products. √
- RS is also experiencing a high staff turnover because of poor skills
development. √
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Only award marks for responses that are quoted from the
scenario.
(2 x 1) (2)
3.6.2 Other impact of total quality management/TQM if poorly implemented
- Setting unrealistic deadlines√ that may not be achieved. √
- Employees may not be adequately trained√ resulting in poor quality
products. √
- Decline in productivity, √ because of stoppages. √
- Businesses may not be able to make necessary changes to
products/services, √ to satisfy the needs of customers. √
- Customers will have many alternatives to choose from √ and the impact
could be devastating to businesses. √
- Investors might withdraw investment, √ if there is a decline in profits. √
- Decline in sales, √ as more goods are returned by unhappy customers. √
- Undocumented/Uncontrolled quality control processes/systems √ could
result in errors/deviations from pre-set quality standards. √
- Any other relevant answer related to other impact of TQM if poorly
implemented by businesses.
NOTE: Do not award marks for responses that were quoted in
QUESTION 3.6.1.
Max. (4)
3.7 Differences between quality control and quality assurance
QUALITY CONTROL QUALITY ASSURANCE
- System that ensures the desired - Checks carried out during √ and
quality is met √ by inspecting the after the production process. √
final product. √
- Ensure that finished products √ - Ensure that required standards
meet the required standards. √ have been met √ at every stage of
the process. √
- Process of ensuring that products - Processes put in place to ensure
are consistently √ manufactured that the quality of products/
to high standards. √ services/systems √ adhere to pre-
set standards with minimal
defects/delays/shortcomings. √
- Checking raw materials/ - Ensuring that every process is
employees/machinery/work- aimed to get the product ‘right the
manship/products √ to ensure that first time’ √ and prevent mistakes
high standards are maintained. √ from happening. √
- Includes setting targets/ - The ‘building in’ of quality √ as
measuring performance √ and opposed to ‘checking of’ quality. √
taking corrective measures. √
- Any other relevant answer - Any other relevant answer related
related to quality control. to quality assurance.
Sub-max. (2) Sub-max. (2)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 15
NOTE: 1. The answer does not have to be in tabular format.
2. The differences do not have to link, but must be clear.
3. Award a maximum of TWO (2) marks if the differences are
not clear/Mark either quality control or quality assurance
only.
Max. (4)
3.8 Impact of continuous skills development as a total quality management/
TQM element
Positives/Advantages
- Large businesses have a human resources department dedicated √ to
skills training and development. √
- Human resources experts ensure that training programmes are relevant√
to increase customer satisfaction. √
- Ability to afford specialised √/skilled employees. √
- Large businesses conduct skills audits to establish the competency/ √
education levels of staff which may positively affect the quality of
products. √
- May be able to hire qualified trainers√ to train employees on a regular
basis. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of
continuous skills development as a TQM element on large businesses.
-
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Poor communication systems in large businesses√ may prevent effective
training from taking place. √
- Trained employees may leave for better jobs √after they gained more skills.√
- De-motivates employees, √ if they do not receive recognition for training.√
- Employees who specialise in narrowly defined jobs √ may become
frustrated/demotivated. √
- Employees may not be aware of the level of competency √ they should meet
in order to achieve their targets. √
- It may be difficult to monitor√/evaluate the effectiveness of training. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of
continuous skills development as a TQM element on large businesses.
Max. (6)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 3 MARKS
3.1 3
3.2 4
3.3.1 3
3.3.2 4
3.4 6
3.5 4
3.6.1 2
3.6.2 4
3.7 4
3.8 6
TOTAL 40
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16 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
QUESTION 4: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
4.1 Provisions of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act/BCEA
- Regulation of working time/Ordinary hours of work/overtime/meal
intervals and rest periods/Sunday work/public holidays. √
- Leave/annual/sick/family responsibility/maternity/paternity/parental. √
- Particulars of employment and remuneration. √
- Termination of employment. √
- Prohibition of employment of children and forced labour. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the provisions of the BCEA.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only.
(4 x 1) (4)
4.2 Strategic management process
OPTION 1
- Have a clear vision/mission statement/measurable/realistic objective
in place. √√
- Identify opportunities/weaknesses/strengths/threats by conducting
environmental scanning/situational analysis. √√
- Tools available for environmental scanning may include a SWOT
analysis/Porter’s Five Forces model/PESTLE analysis/industrial
analysis tools. √√
- Formulate alternative strategies to respond to the challenges. √√
- Develop (an) action plan(s), including the tasks to be done/deadlines
to be met/ resources to be procured. √√
- Implement selected strategies by communicating it to all stakeholders/
organising business resources/motivating staff. √√
- Continuously evaluate/monitor/measure strategies in order to take
corrective action. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management
process.
OR
OPTION 2
- Review/Analyse/Re-examine their vision/mission statement. √√
- Conduct an environmental analysis using models such as
SWOT/PESTLE/Porter’s Five Forces. √√
- Formulate a strategy, such as a defensive/retrenchment strategy. √√
- Implement a strategy, using a template such as an action plan. √√
- Control/Evaluate/Monitor the implemented strategy to identify
gaps/deviations in implementation. √√
- Take corrective action to ensure goals/objectives are met. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management
process.
Max. (6)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 17
4.3 PESTLE elements from statements
4.3.1 Environmental √√
4.3.2 Economical √√
4.3.3 Technological √√
(3 x 2) (6)
4.4 Implications of management control as a BBBEE pillar for businesses
- Businesses must ensure that transformation is implemented at all
levels. √√
- Appoint black people in senior executive positions/to management. √√
- Involve black people in the strategic decision-making processes. √√
- Ensure that black females are represented in management. √√
- Businesses score points in management when selling more than 25% of
their shares to black investors, so that some of them can become
directors. √√
- Due to a shortage of skilled black managers/directors, some businesses
find it difficult to make appointments. √√
- Businesses are directly penalised for not implementing this pillar. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the implications of management
control as a BBBEE pillar for businesses.
Max. (4)
BUSINESS OPERATIONS
4.5 Aspects that should be included in an induction programme
- Safety regulations and rules. √
- Overview of the business. √
- Information about the business products/services. √
- Meeting with senior management who will explain the company's vision/
values/job descriptions/daily tasks. √
- Tour of the premises. √
- Introduction to key people and close colleagues. √
- Conditions of employment, e.g. working hours/leave application process/
disciplinary procedures, √ etc.
- Administration details on systems/processes/logistics. √
- Discussion of the employment contract and conditions of service. √
- Discussion on personnel policies, e.g. making private phone calls/using
the internet, √ etc.
- Discussion on employee benefits. √
- Corporate social responsibility programmes. √
- Any other relevant answer related to aspects that should be included in
an induction programme.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only.
(4 x 1) (4)
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18 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
4.6 Link between salary determination and the Basic Conditions of the
Employment Act
- BCEA outlines legalities, such as the employment contract, which may
affect salary determination. √√
- Payment of salaries should be based on whether the employee is
permanent or employed on a fixed contract. √√
- The BCEA sets out conditions that ensure fair labour and human
resources practices. √√
- According to the BCEA, businesses may use different remuneration
methods to pay their employees. √√
- Businesses are supposed to deduct income tax (PAYE) from the
employees’ taxable salaries. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the link between salary
determination and the Basic Conditions of the Employment Act.
Max. (6)
4.7 Quality indicators of the administration function
4.7.1 Quality indicators of the administration function from the
scenario
- They use modern technology efficiently. √
- The administration department also make reliable information
available to management on time. √
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Only award marks for responses that are quoted
from the scenario.
(2 x 1) (2)
4.7.2 Other quality indicators of the administration function
- Fast and reliable data capturing √ and processing systems. √
- Make relevant information available √ for quick decision-making.
√
- Handle complaints quickly √ and effectively. √
- Implement effective risk management policies √ to minimise
business losses. √
- Quality assurance/Control/Evaluation is recorded √
accurately. √
- All documentation is kept neatly √ and orderly in a safe place. √
- Easy to recall √ and find information/documentation. √
- Financial documents are kept up to date√ and recorded
accurately. √
- All systems and processes √ are documented. √
- Any other relevant answer related to quality indicators of the
administration function.
NOTE: Do not award marks for responses that were quoted in
QUESTION 4.7.1
Max. (4)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 19
4.8 Ways in which TQM can reduce the cost of quality
- Introduce quality circles to discuss ways of improving the quality of
their work/workmanship. √√
- Schedule activities to eliminate duplication of tasks. √√
- Share responsibility for quality output amongst management and
workers. √√
- Train employees at all levels, so that everyone understands their roles
in quality management. √√
- Develop work systems that empower employees to find new ways of
improving quality. √√
- Work closely with suppliers to improve the quality of raw materials/
inputs. √√
- Improve communication about the quality challenges/deviations, so
that everyone can learn from past experiences. √√
- Reduce investment on expensive, but ineffective inspection
procedures in the production process. √√
- Implement pro-active maintenance programmes for equipment/
machinery to reduce/eliminate breakdowns. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which TQM can reduce
the cost of quality.
Max. (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 4 MARKS
4.1 4
4.2 6
4.3 6
4.4 4
4.5 4
4.6 6
4.7.1 2
4.7.2 4
4.8 4
TOTAL 40
TOTAL SECTION B: 80
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20 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
SECTION C
Mark the answers to the FIRST question only.
QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (LEGISLATION)
5.1 Introduction
- SETAs are responsible for identifying skills shortages and develop
strategies to overcome these challenges. √
- All SETAs operate through a levy-grant system, as determined by the
Skills Development Levies Act. √
- The SDA aims to link learning to the demands of the labour market. √
- Businesses should make an effort to comply with this Act to avoid
penalties. √
- Any other relevant introduction related to the role of SETAs/purpose of
the SDA/impact of the SDA on businesses/ways in which businesses
could comply with the SDA.
(Any 2 x 1) (2)
5.2 Role of SETAs in supporting the Skills Development Act/SDA
- Develop sector skills plans in line with the National Skills Development
Strategy. √√
- Draw up skills development plans for their specific economic
sectors. √√
- Approve workplace skills plans and annual training reports. √√
- Allocate grants to employers, education and training providers. √√
- Pay out grants to companies that are complying with the requirements
of the Skills Development Act. √√
- Monitor/Evaluate the actual training by service providers. √√
- Promote and establish learnerships. √√
- Register learnership agreements/learning programmes. √√
- Provide training material/programmes for skills development
facilitators. √√
- Provide accreditation for skills development facilitators. √√
- Oversee training in different sectors of the South African economy. √√
- Identify suitable workplaces for practical work experience. √√
- Collect levies and pay out grants as required. √√
- Report to the Director General. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the role of SETAs in supporting the
SDA.
Max. (12)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 21
5.3 Purpose of Skill Development Act/SDA
- Develops the skills of South Africans √ in order to improve productivity
in the workplace. √
- Encourages businesses to improve √ the skills of new and existing
workers. √
- Invests in the education and training √ of the South African workforce. √
- Purposefully redresses imbalances of the past√ through education and
training. √
- Improves the job prospects √ of previously disadvantaged people. √
- Provides the systematic implementation of strategies √ on a national,
sector and workplace basis. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of the Skill
Development Act.
Max. (8)
5.4 Impact of Skills Development Act/SDA on businesses
Positives/Advantages
- Increases the number of skilled employees √ in areas where these
skills are scarce. √
- Trains employees √ to improve productivity in the workplace. √
- Increases global √ competitiveness. √
- On-going skills development/learning/acquisition of new skills are
encouraged √ to sustain the improvement of skills development. √
- Increases investment in education and training√ in the labour market. √
- Increases the return on investment √ in education and training. √
- Improves employment opportunities √ and labour movement. √
- Self-employment √ and entrepreneurship are promoted. √
- Workplace discrimination √ can be addressed through training. √
- Workplace is used as an active learning environment √ where
employees can gain practical job experience. √
- Businesses may claim back some of the costs of training √ as a refund
from relevant SETA’s. √
- Improves quality products/service delivery √as business employ more
skilled workers. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of
the SDA on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- The SDA process is prescriptive/requires a large amount of paperwork/
administration √ which can cost time/money. √
- Skills Development Levy could be an extra burden √ to financially
struggling businesses. √
- It may be monitored/controlled by government departments √ that do
not have education/training as their key priorities. √
- Many courses offered by companies may not have unit standards √ that
relate to the course content. √
- Many service providers that offer training services √ are not SAQA
accredited. √
- Many businesses may not support √ this government initiative. √
- Implementation of the SDA can be difficult √ to monitor and control. √
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22 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
- Employees are expected to attend learnerships during work hours √
which could affect the production process/productivity. √
- It can be costly for businesses to employ a person √ to implement/
manage/control learnerships. √
- The time/money spent on improving employee skills is wasted, √ if they
leave the business. √
- Only companies with a staff payroll over R500 000 per annum √ can
claim the Skills Development levy. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages
of the SDA on businesses.
Max. (14)
5.4 Ways in which businesses could comply with the SDA
- Businesses/Employers who collect PAYE should register with the
relevant SETAs. √√
- One per cent (1%) of an employer's payroll has to be paid over to the
SETA. √√
- Businesses should register with SARS in the area in which their business
is classified (in terms of the SETA). √√
- Employers should submit a workplace skills plan and provide evidence
that it was implemented. √√
- Businesses with more than 50 employees must appoint a skills
development facilitator. √√
- Assess the skills of employees to determine areas in which skills
development are needed. √√
- Encourage employees to participate in learnerships and other training
programmes. √√
- Provide all employees with the opportunity to improve their skills. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which businesses could
comply with the SDA.
Max. (12)
5.6 Conclusion
- SETAs were established to ensure that the workplace training and skills
development are approved by the South African Qualifications Authority
(SAQA). √√
- Businesses must register for and pay their skills development levy to the
SARS, which then allocates this money to the SETA that each specific
company has registered with. √√
- The Skills Development Act plays an important role in contributing to the
economic growth of the country. √√
- Businesses should strive to comply with the SDA to avoid unnecessary
penalties. √√
- Any other relevant conclusion related to the role of SETAs/purpose of
the SDA/impact of the SDA on businesses/ways in which businesses
could comply with the SDA.
(Any 1 x 2) (2)
[40]
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 23
QUESTION 5: BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Role of SETAs in supporting the SDA 12
Purpose of SDA 8 Max.
Impact of SDA on businesses 14 32
Ways in which businesses could comply
12
with the SDA
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis, interpretation 2
Synthesis 2 8
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
*LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
QUESTION 6: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (HUMAN RESOURCES FUNCTION)
6.1 Introduction
- The best candidate for the position can be chosen from the pool of
applicants as a result of a clear job description and job specification. √
- The human resources manager is responsible for selecting and
appointing qualified employees. √
- The aim of induction is to familiarise the new employee with their
position and surroundings. √
- An employment contract sets out the legal conditions of employment
that must be observed by both the employer and the employee. √
- Any other relevant introduction related to the differences between job
description and job specification/selection procedure/benefits of
induction for businesses/legal requirements of the employment
contract.
(Any 2 x 1) (2)
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24 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
6.2 Differences between job description and job specification
JOB DESCRIPTION JOB SPECIFICATION
- Describes the - Describes the minimum
duties/responsibilities of a acceptable personal
specific job. √√ qualities/skills/qualifications
needed for the job. √√
- Written description of the job and - Written description of specific
its requirements/Summary of the qualifications/skills/experience
nature/type of the job. √√ needed for the job. √√
- Describes key performance - Describes key requirements for
areas/tasks for a specific job the person who will fill the
such as job title/working position such as formal
conditions/relationship of the job qualifications/willingness to
with other jobs in the travel/work unusual hours. √√
business. √√
- Any other relevant answer - Any other relevant answer
related to job description. related job specification.
Sub-max. (4) Sub-max. (4)
NOTE: 1. The answer does not have to be in tabular format.
2. The differences do not have to link, but must be clear.
3. Award a maximum of FOUR (4) marks if the differences
are not clear/Mark either job description or job
specification only.
Max. (8)
6.3 Selection procedure
OPTION 1
- Determine fair assessment criteria √ on which selection will be
based. √
- Applicants must submit √ the application forms/curriculum vitae and
certified copies of personal documents/IDs/proof of qualifications. √
- Sort the received documents/CVs √ according to the
assessment/selection criteria. √
- Screen/Determine which applications meet the minimum job
requirements √ and separate these from the rest. √
- Preliminary interviews are conducted √ if many suitable applications
were received. √
- Reference checks should be made √ to verify the content of CVs such
as contacting previous employers to check on their work experience. √
- Compile a shortlist √ of potential candidates identified. √
- Shortlisted candidates may be subjected √ to various types of selection
tests such as skills tests. √
- Invite shortlisted candidates √ for an interview. √
- A written offer √ is made to the selected candidate. √
- Inform unsuccessful applicants √ about the outcome of their
application. √/Some adverts indicate the deadline√ for informing only
successful candidates. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the selection procedure.
OR
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 25
OPTION 2
- Receive documentation such as application forms √ and sort it
according to the criteria of the job. √
- Evaluate CVs √ and create a shortlist/Screen the applicants. √
- Check information in the CVs √ and contact references. √
- Conduct preliminary sifting interviews √ to identify applicants who are
not suitable for the job, although they meet all requirements. √
- Assess/Test candidates who have applied for senior positions √ to
ensure the best candidate is chosen. √
- Conduct interviews √ with shortlisted candidates. √
- Offer employment in writing √ to the selected candidate(s). √
- Any other relevant answer related to the selection procedure.
Max. (14)
6.4 Benefits of induction for businesses
- Allows new employees to settle in quickly √ and work effectively. √
- Ensures that new employees understand rules √ and restrictions in the
business. √
- New employees may establish relationships √ with fellow employees at
different levels. √
- Make new employees feel at ease in the workplace, √ which reduces
anxiety/ insecurity/fear. √
- The results obtained during the induction process √ provide a base for
focussed training. √
- Increases quality of performance/productivity √ which promotes the
effective use of working methods/resources. √
- Minimises/Decreases the need for on-going training √ and
development. √
- Employees will be familiar with organisational structures, √ such as
who are their supervisors/low level managers. √
- Opportunities are created for new employees √ to experience/explore
different departments. √
- New employees will understand their role/responsibilities √ concerning
safety regulations and rules. √
- New employees will know the layout of the building/factory/offices/
where everything is, √ which saves production time. √
- Learn more about the business so that new employees understand√
their roles/responsibilities in order to be more efficient. √
- Company policies regarding conduct/procedures/safety and
security/employment contract/conditions of employment/working
hours/leave, √ are communicated. √
- Realistic expectations for new employees √ as well as the business are
created. √
- New employees may feel part of the team √ resulting in positive morale/
motivation. √
- Employees may have a better understanding of business policies √
regarding ethical/professional conduct/procedures/CSR. √
- Reduces staff turnover √ as new employees have been inducted
properly. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of induction for
businesses.
Max. (14)
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26 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2023)
6.5 Legal requirements of the employment contract
- The employer and employee/Both parties must sign the contract. √√
- Employer and employee must agree to any changes to the contract. √√
- No party may unilaterally change aspects of the employment contract. √√
- The remuneration package/including benefits must be clearly
indicated. √√
- The employment contract may not contain any requirements that are in
conflict with the BCEA. √√
- Aspects of the employment contract can be renegotiated during the
course of employment. √√
- The employer must explain the terms and conditions of the employment
contract to the employee. √√
- Conditions of employment/duties/responsibilities of the employees must
be stipulated clearly. √√
- All business policies, procedures and disciplinary codes/rules can form
part of the employment contract. √√
- The employer must allow the employee to thoroughly read through the
contract before it is signed. √√
- The employment contract should include a code of conduct and code of
ethics. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the legal requirements of the
employment contract.
Max. (10)
6.6 Conclusion
- A detailed job analysis is crucial to avoiding the unnecessary expense of
re-advertising the vacancy. √√
- A well-organised selection process will result in identifying and appointing
the most suitable candidate. √√
- A good induction programme enables new employees to have a
fundamental understanding of what is expected in the new job/
position. √√
- Businesses should align the employment contract according to the
requirements of the BCEA to avoid unnecessary legal actions. √√
- Any other relevant conclusion related to the differences between job
description and job specification/selection procedure/benefits of induction
for businesses/legal requirements of the employment contract.
(Any 1 x 2) (2)
[40]
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2023) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 27
QUESTION 6: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Differences between job description and
8
job specification
Selection procedure 14 Max.
Benefits of induction for businesses 14 32
Legal requirements of the employment
10
contract
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis/interpretation 2
8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
*LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 150
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