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NATIONAL
SENIOR CERTIFICATE
GRADE 12
SEPTEMBER 2020
BUSINESS STUDIES P1
MARKING GUIDELINE
MARKS: 150
This marking guideline consists of 24 pages.
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Business Studies Grade 12 P1 Eastern Cape Mock 2020 Memo (Eng)
Grade 12 Business Studies Paper 1 memorandum from the Eastern Cape Mock Exam 2020 (English), 24 pages. Read online or get the free PDF download, question paper linked when available.
Business Studies · Grade 12 · Eastern Cape Mock Exam · 2020 · English. Memorandum, 24 pages. Read online or download the PDF.
- Subject
- Business Studies
- Grade
- Grade 12
- Language
- English
- Document type
- Memorandum
- Year
- 2020
- Exam period
- Eastern Cape Mock Exam
- Paper
- 1
- Curriculum
- CAPS
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- 24
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2 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
NOTES TO MARKERS
PREAMBLE
1. The notes to markers are provided for quality assurance purposes to ensure the
following:
(a) Fairness, consistency and reliability in the standard of marking
(b) Facilitate the moderation of candidates' scripts at the different levels
(c) Streamline the marking process considering the broad spectrum of markers
across the country
(d) Implement appropriate measures in the teaching, learning and assessment
of the subject at schools/institutions of learning
2. Candidates' responses must be in full sentences for SECTIONS B and C.
However, this would depend on the nature of the question.
3. A comprehensive marking guideline has been provided but this is by no means
exhaustive. Due consideration should be given to an answer that is correct but:
Uses a different expression from that which appears in the marking guideline
Comes from another credible source
Original
A different approach is used
NOTE: There is only ONE correct answer in SECTION A.
4. Take note of other relevant answers provided by candidates and allocate marks
accordingly. (In cases where the answer is unclear or indicates some under-
standing, part-marks should be awarded, for example, one mark instead of the
maximum of two marks.)
5. The word 'Sub-max.' is used to facilitate the allocation of marks within a question
or sub-question.
6. The purpose of circling marks (guided by 'max' in the breakdown of marks) on the
right-hand side is to ensure consistency and accuracy in the marking of scripts as
well as for calculation and moderation purposes.
7. Subtotals to questions must be written in the right-hand margin. Circle the
subtotals as indicated by the allocation of marks. This must be guided by ‘max.’
in the marking guidelines. Only the total for each question should appear in the
left-hand margin next to the appropriate question number.
8. In an indirect question, the theory as well as the response must be relevant and
related to the question.
9. Correct numbering of answers to questions or sub questions is recommended in
SECTIONS A and B. However, if the numbering is incorrect, follow the sequence
of the candidate's responses. Candidates will be penalised if the latter is not clear.
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2020) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 3
10. No additional credit must be given for repetition of facts. Indicate with an 'R'.
11. The differentiation between 'evaluate' and 'critically evaluate' can be explained
as follows:
11.1 When 'evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond in either a
positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and negative)
stance, e.g. Positive: 'COIDA eliminates time and costs spent√ on
lengthy civil court proceedings.' √
11.2 When 'critically evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond
in either a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and
negative) stance. In this instance candidates are also expected to
support their responses with more depth, e.g. 'COIDA eliminates time
and costs spent √ on lengthy civil court proceedings, √ because the
employer will not be liable for compensation to the employee for injuries
sustained during working hours as long as it can be proved that the
business was not negligent.' √
NOTE: 1. The above could apply to 'analyse' as well.
2. Note the placing of the tick (√) in the allocation of marks.
12. The allocation of marks must be informed by the nature of the question, cognitive
verb used, mark allocation in the marking guideline and the context of each
question.
Cognitive verbs, such as:
12.1 Advise, name, state, mention, outline, motivate, recommend, suggest,
(list not exhaustive) do not usually require much depth in candidates'
responses. Therefore, the mark allocation for each statement/answer
appears at the end.
12.2 Define, describe, explain, discuss, elaborate, distinguish, differentiate,
compare, tabulate, justify, analyse, evaluate, critically evaluate (list not
exhaustive) require a greater depth of understanding, application and
reasoning. Therefore, the marks must be allocated more objectively to
ensure that assessing is conducted according to established norms so
that uniformity, consistency and fairness are achieved.
13. Mark only the FIRST answer where candidates offer more than one answer for
SECTION B and C questions that require one answer.
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4 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
14. SECTION B
14.1 If for example, FIVE facts are required, mark the candidate's FIRST FIVE
responses and ignore the rest of the responses. Indicate by drawing a line across
the unmarked portion or use the word 'Cancel'.
NOTE: This applies only to questions where the number of facts is specified.
14.2 If two facts are written in one sentence, award the candidate FULL credit. Point
14.1 above still applies.
14.3 If candidates are required to provide their own examples/views, brainstorm this
at the marking centre to finalise alternative answers.
14.4 Use of the cognitive verbs and allocation of marks:
14.4.1 If the number of facts are specified, questions that require candidates to
'describe/discuss/explain' may be marked as follows:
Fact 2 marks (or as indicated in the marking guidelines)
Explanation 1 mark (two marks will be allocated in Section C)
The 'fact' and 'explanation' are given separately in the marking guideline
to facilitate mark allocation.
14.4.2 If the number of facts required is not specified, the allocation of marks
must be informed by the nature of the question and the maximum mark
allocated in the marking guideline.
14.5 ONE mark may be awarded for answers that are easy to recall, requires one
word answers or is quoted directly from a scenario/case study. This
applies to SECTIONS B and C in particular (where applicable).
15. SECTION C
15.1 The breakdown of the mark allocation for the essays is as follows:
Introduction
Maximum:
Content
32
Conclusion
Insight 8
TOTAL 40
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2020) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 5
15.2 Insight consists of the following components:
Layout/Structure Is there an introduction, a body, and a conclusion? 2
Analysis and Is the candidate able to break down the question into 2
interpretation headings/subheadings/interpret it correctly to show
understanding of what is being asked?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
All headings addressed: 1 (One 'A')
Interpretation (16 to 32 marks): 1 (One 'A')
Synthesis Are there relevant decisions/facts/responses made 2
based on the questions?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
No relevant facts: 0 (Two '-S')
Some relevant facts: 1 (One '-S')
Only relevant facts: 2 (No '-S')
Option 1: Where a candidate answers 50% or more
of the question with only relevant facts; no
'-S' appears in the left margin. Award the
maximum of TWO (2) marks for synthesis.
Option 2: Where a candidate answers less than 50%
of the question with only OR some relevant
facts; one '-S' appears in the left margin.
Award a maximum of ONE (1) mark for
synthesis.
Option 3: Where a candidate answers less than 50%
of the question with no relevant facts; two
'-S' appear in the left margin. Award a
ZERO mark for synthesis.
Originality Is there evidence of examples based on recent 2
information, current trends and developments?
TOTAL FOR INSIGHT: 8
TOTAL MARKS FOR FACTS: 32
TOTAL MARKS FOR ESSAY (8 + 32): 40
NOTE: 1. No marks will be awarded for contents repeated from the
introduction and conclusion.
2. The candidate forfeits marks for layout if the words
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not stated.
3. No marks will be awarded for layout, if the headings
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not supported by an
explanation.
15.3 Indicate insight in the left-hand margin with a symbol e.g. ('L, A, -S and/or O').
15.4 The breakdown of marks is indicated at the end of the suggested answer/
marking guideline to each question.
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6 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
15.5 Mark all relevant facts until the SUB MAX/MAX mark in a subsection has been
attained. Write SUB MAX/MAX after maximum marks have been obtained, but
continue reading for originality “O”.
15.6 At the end of each essay indicate the allocation of marks for facts and marks
for insight as follows: (L – Layout, A – Analysis, S – Synthesis, O – Originality)
as in the table below.
CONTENT MARKS
Facts 32 (max.)
L 2
A 2
S 2
O 2
TOTAL 40
15.7 When awarding marks for facts, take note of the sub-maxima indicated,
especially if candidates do not make use of the same subheadings. Remember,
headings and subheadings are encouraged and contribute to insight
(structuring/logical flow/sequencing) and indicate clarity of thought. (See
MARK BREAKDOWN at the end of each question.)
15.8 If the candidate identifies/interprets the question INCORRECTLY, then he/she
may still obtain marks for layout.
15.9 If a different approach is used by candidates, ensure that the answers are
assessed according to the mark allocation/subheadings as indicated in the
marking guideline.
15.10 15.10.1 Award TWO marks for complete sentences. Award ONE mark for
phrases, incomplete sentences and vague answers.
15.10.2 With effect from November 2015, the TWO marks will not
necessarily appear at the end of each completed sentence. The ticks
(√) will be separated and indicated next to each fact, e.g. 'Product
development is a growth strategy √, where businesses aim to
introduce new products into existing markets.'√
This will be informed by the nature and context of the question, as
well as the cognitive verb used.
15.11 With effect from November 2017, the maximum of TWO (2) marks for facts
shown as headings in the marking guidelines, will not necessarily apply to each
question. This would also depend on the nature of the question.
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2020) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 7
SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1 1.1.1 D √√
1.1.2 B √√
1.1.3 B √√
1.1.4 A √√
1.1.5 C √√
(5 x 2) (10)
1.2 1.2.1 tertiary √√
1.2.2 Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases √√
1.2.3 management control √√
1.2.4 job analysis √√
1.2.5 quality assurance √√
(5 x 2) (10)
1.3 1.3.1 F √√
1.3.2 E √√
1.3.3 J √√
1.3.4 A √√
1.3.5 I √√
(5 x 2) (10)
TOTAL SECTION A: 30
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 1 MARKS
1.1 10
1.2 10
1.3 10
TOTAL 30
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8 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
SECTION B
Mark the FIRST TWO answers only.
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
2.1 Types of defensive strategies
- Retrenchment √
- Divestiture/Divestment √
- Liquidation √
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 1) (2)
2.2 Role of SETAs
- Develop sector skills plans in line with the National Skills Development
Strategy. √√
- Draw up skills development plans for their specific economic
sectors. √√
- Approve workplace skills plans and annual training reports. √√
- Allocate grants to employers, education and training providers. √√
- Pay out grants to companies that comply with the requirements of the
Skills Development Act. √√
- Monitor/Evaluate the actual training by service providers. √√
- Promote and establish learnerships. √√
- Register learnership agreements/learning programmes. √√
- Provide training material/programmes for skills development
facilitators. √√
- Provide accreditation for skills development facilitators. √√
- Oversee training in different sectors of the South African economy. √√
- Promote learnerships and learning programmes by identifying suitable
workplaces for practical work experience. √√
- Collect levies and pay out grants as required. √√
- Report to the Director General. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the role of SETAs in supporting
the SDA.
Max. (8)
2.3 Developing a strategy
STEPS IN DEVELOPING A MOTIVATION
STRATEGY
1. Formulate strategies √√ The management of SSM devised a
strategy that will assist them to
respond to this challenge. √
2. Implementing strategies √√ Thereafter they put the strategy into
action by using action plans. √
Sub-max. (4) Sub-max. (2)
NOTE: 1. Award marks for the steps in developing a strategy
even if the quote is incomplete.
2. Do not award marks for the motivation, if the steps in
developing a strategy was incorrectly identified.
Max. (6)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2020) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 9
2.4 Positive impact of BBBEE on businesses
- Businesses that comply with BBBEE regarding the pillars √ will be
rated high on the BEE scorecard/may get government tenders/may
attract other BBBEE business partners/-suppliers. √
- Encourages businesses to address the demands √ for redress/ equity
directly. √
- Provides a variety of business codes √ to improve employment equity. √
- Provides for human resources development √ through training and
development. √
- Promotes enterprise development, √ by developing entrepreneurial
skills of previously disadvantaged/designated people to start their own
businesses. √
- Businesses will have a good overview on how it is performing √ in
comparison to other businesses in the rest of the country. √
- A good BBBEE rating √ will improve the image of the business. √
- By focusing on BBBEE, the business will show commitment √ towards
the social/education/economic developments in the community/
country. √
- Once rated, the business will understand how to develop BBBEE
strategies √ that will increase its BBBEE ratings on an annual basis. √
- Fronting is discouraged, √ as it may lead to the disqualification of a
business's entire scorecard/BBBEE status. √
- Share prices of BBBEE compliant businesses are likely to increase √
as they attract more business. √
- Businesses that support Small, Micro, Medium Enterprises (SMMEs), √
may increase their own BBBEE ratings. √
- Complying with BBBEE requirements gives businesses
experience/exposure √ to be able to provide better employment
opportunities/staff development. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact of BBBEE on
businesses.
Max. (6)
2.5 Provisions of BCEA
2.5.1 Hours of work/Working hours
- Workers may not work for more than 45 hours √ in any week. √
- Workers may work nine hours a day √ if they work five days or less per
week √/eight hours a day √ if they work more than five days a week. √
- Night work performed after 18:00 and before 6:00 the next day by
agreement, √ must be compensated by allowance/reduction of work
hours. √
- Ordinary work hours may be extended by agreement √ by a maximum
of 15 minutes per day √/maximum of sixty minutes per week √ to
complete duties when serving the public. √
- Ordinary work hours may be reduced √ to a maximum of 40 hours per
week/8 hours per day. √
- Any other relevant answer related to hours of work as a provision of the
BCEA.
Max. (4)
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10 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
2.5.2 Overtime
- Workers must agree √ to work overtime. √
- Workers cannot work more than three hours overtime √ per day √/10
hours √ per week. √
- Overtime must be compensated as follows:
o One and half times the normal rate of pay √ for overtime worked
on weekdays and Saturdays. √
o Double the normal rate of pay √ for overtime worked on Sundays
and public holidays. √
- Overtime must be paid either at the specified rate for overtime √ or an
employee may agree to receive paid time off. √
- Minister of Labour may prescribe the maximum permitted √ working
hours, including overtime, for health and safety reasons for a certain
category of work. √
- Any other relevant answer related to overtime as a provision of the
BCEA.
Max. (4)
2.6 Employment Equity Act
2.6.1 Ways of non-compliance with the EEA
- The management of Blue Berry Farm does not employ young women
to work on the farm. √
- They also do not appoint people with disabilities. √
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 1) (2)
2.6.2 Ways in which businesses can comply with the EEA
- BBF/A business should guard against discriminatory appointments. √√
- Assess the racial composition of all employees, including senior
management. √√
- Ensure that there is equal representation of all racial groups in every
level of employment. √√
- Promote equal opportunities and fair treatment. √√
- Clearly define the appointment process, so that all parties are well
informed. √√
- Use certified psychometric tests to assess applicants/employees to
ensure that suitable candidates are appointed. √√
- Ensure that diversity/inclusivity in the workplace is achieved. √√
- Implement affirmative action measures to redress disadvantages
experienced by designated groups. √√
- Prepare an employment equity plan in consultation with employees. √√
- Implement an employment equity plan. √√
- Submit the employment equity plan to the Department of Labour. √√
- Assign one or more senior managers to ensure implementation and
monitoring of the employment equity plan. √√
- Eliminate barriers that have an adverse impact on designated
groups. √√
- BBF/A business should accommodate people from different designated
groups. √√
- Retain/Develop/Train designated groups, including skills development.
√√
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2020) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 11
- Regularly report to the Department of Labour on progress in
implementing the plan. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which businesses may
comply with the EEA.
Max. (8)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 2 MARKS
2.1 2
2.2 8
2.3 6
2.4 6
2.5 8
2.6.1 2
2.6.2 8
TOTAL 40
QUESTION 3: BUSINESS OPERATIONS
3.1 Examples of employee benefits
- Medical Aid Fund/Health Insurance Fund √
- Pension Fund √
- Provident Fund √
- Funeral benefits √
- Car/Travel/Housing/Cellphone/Clothing allowance √
- Performance based incentives √
- Issuing of bonus shares √
- Staff discount/Free or low-cost meal/Canteen facilities √
- Any other relevant answer related to examples of employee benefits.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only.
(4 x 1) (4)
3.2 Types of salary determination methods
EMPLOYEE TYPE OF SALARY MOTIVATION
DETERMINATION
METHOD
1. Mandisa Piece meal √√ Mandisa gets paid R600 for each
door she completes. √
2. Suki Time-related √√ Suki, the cleaner, gets paid
R40/hour for performing her
duties. √
Sub-max. (4) Sub-max. (2)
NOTE: 1. Award marks for the type of salary determination
method even if the quote is incomplete.
2. Do not award marks for the motivation, if the type of
salary determination method was incorrectly
identified.
Max. (6)
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12 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
3.3 Link between salary determination and the BCEA
- BCEA outlines legalities, such as the employment contract, √ which may
affect salary determination. √
- Payment of salaries should be based on whether the employee √ is
permanent or employed on a fixed contract. √
- The BCEA sets out conditions that ensure √ fair labour and human
resources practices. √
- According to the BCEA, businesses may use different remuneration
methods √ to pay their employees. √
- Businesses are supposed to deduct income tax (PAYE) √ from the
employees' taxable salaries. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the link between salary
determination and the BCEA.
Max. (4)
3.4 Advantages of external recruitment as a method of recruitment
- New candidates bring new talents/ideas/experiences/skills √ into the
business. √
- It may help the business to meet affirmative action √ and BBBEE
targets. √
- There is a larger pool of candidates √ to choose from. √
- There is a better chance of getting a suitable candidate √ with the
required skills/qualifications/competencies who does not need much
training/development which reduce costs. √
- Minimises unhappiness/conflict √ amongst current employees who may
have applied for the post. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of external
recruitment as a method of recruitment.
Max. (4)
3.5 TQM elements
3.5.1 Continuous skills development/Education and training √√ (2)
3.5.2 Total client/customer satisfaction √√ (2)
3.6 Meaning of total quality management
- TQM is an integrated system/methodology applied throughout the
organisation, √ which helps to design/produce/provide quality products/
services to customers. √
- It is a thought revolution in management, √ where the entire business is
operated with customer orientation in all business activities. √
- TQM enables businesses to continuously improve on the delivery of
products/ services √ in order to satisfy the needs of customers. √
- Management ensures that each employee is responsible √ for the
quality of his/her work/actions. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the meaning of total quality
management.
Max. (4)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2020) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 13
3.7 Advantages of a good quality management system
- Effective customer services are rendered, √ resulting in increased customer
satisfaction. √
- Time and resources √ are used efficiently. √
- Productivity increases √ through proper time management/using high quality
resources. √
- Products/Services are constantly improved √ resulting in increased levels of
customer satisfaction. √
- Vision/Mission/Business goals √ may be achieved. √
- Business has a competitive advantage √ over its competitors. √
- Regular training will continuously improve √ the quality of employees’ skills/
knowledge. √
- Employers and employees will have a healthy working relationship √ resulting
in happy/productive workers. √
- Increased market share/more customers √ improve profitability. √
- Improves business image √ as there are less defects/returns. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of a good quality
management system.
Max. (6)
3.8 Ways in which TQM can reduce the cost of quality
- Introduce quality circles to discuss ways of improving the quality of work/
workmanship. √√
- Schedule activities to eliminate duplication of tasks. √√
- Share responsibility for quality output amongst management and workers.
√√
- Train employees at all levels, so that everyone understands their role in
quality management. √√
- Develop work systems that empower employees to find new ways of
improving quality. √√
- Work closely with suppliers to improve the quality of raw materials/inputs. √√
- Improve communication about quality challenges/deviations, so that
everyone can learn from experience. √√
- Reduce investment on expensive, but ineffective inspection procedures in the
production process. √√
- Implement pro-active maintenance programmes for equipment/
machinery to reduce/eliminate breakdowns. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which TQM can reduce the cost
of quality.
Max. (8)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 3 MARKS
3.1 4
3.2 6
3.3 4
3.4 4
3.5 4
3.6 4
3.7 6
3.8 8
TOTAL 40
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14 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
QUESTION 4: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
4.1 Business environments and extent of control
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS EXTENT OF CONTROL
1. Micro environment √ Full control √
2. Market environment √ Partial/Some/Limited/Less/Little
control √
3. Macro environment √ No control √
Sub-max. (3) Sub-max. (3)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first THREE (3) only.
2. The answer does not have to be in tabular format.
3. Award marks for the business environment even if the
extent of control is not indicated/incorrect.
4. The extent of control must be linked to the business
environment.
Max. (6)
4.2 Rights of employees according to the LRA
- Employees may join a trade union of their choice. √√
- Request trade union representatives to assist/represent employees in
grievance/disciplinary hearings. √√
- Trade union representatives may take reasonable time off work with
pay, to attend to trade union duties. √√
- Embark on legal strikes as a remedy for grievances. √√
- Refer unresolved workplace disputes to the CCMA. √√
- Refer unresolved CCMA disputes to the Labour Court on appeal. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to rights of employees according to
the LRA.
Max. (6)
4.3 Porter’s Five Forces model
4.3.1 Bargaining power of suppliers/Power of suppliers
- Suppliers that deliver high quality product √ may have power over the
business. √
- Assess the power of the suppliers √ in influencing prices. √
- The more powerful the suppliers, √ the less control the business has
over them. √
- The smaller the number of suppliers, √ the more powerful they may be
as the choice of suppliers may be limited. √
- Identify the kind of power suppliers' have √ in terms of the quality of
products/services/reliability/ability to make prompt deliveries. √
- Any other relevant answer related to how businesses could apply the
bargaining power of suppliers/power of suppliers to analyse the market
environment.
Max. (4)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2020) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 15
4.3.2 Power of competitors/Competitive rivalry
- Competitors selling the same/similar products/services √ may have a
greater impact on the market of the business. √
- If competitors have a unique product/service, √ then they will have
greater power. √
- A business with many competitors in the same market √ has very little
power in their market. √
- Businesses should draw up a competitor's profile of all competitors √ so
that they can determine their own strengths as well as those of
competitors. √
- Some businesses have necessary resources to start price wars √ and
continue selling at a loss until some/all competitors leave the market. √
- Any other relevant answer related to how businesses could apply the
power of competitors/competitive rivalry to analyse the market
environment. Max. (4)
BUSINESS OPERATIONS
4.4 Sources of internal recruitment
- Internal e-mails/Intranet/web sites to staff √
- Word of mouth √
- Business newsletter/circulars √
- Internal/management referrals √
- Notice board of the business √
- Internal bulletins √
- Recommendation of current employees √
- Head hunting within the business/organisational database √
- Any other relevant answer related to the sources of internal recruitment.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only. (4 x 1) (4)
4.5 Reasons for the termination of an employment contract
- The employer may dismiss an employee for valid reasons, √ e.g.
unsatisfactory job performance, misconduct, etc. √
- Employer may no longer have work for redundant employees √/cannot
fulfil the contract/is restructuring. √
- The employer may retrench √ some employees due to insolvency/may
not be able to pay the employees. √
- Employees decided to leave √ and resign voluntarily. √
- An employee may have reached the pre-determined age √ of
retirement. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the reasons for the termination of
an employment contract. Max. (6)
4.6.1 Roles of quality circles as part of continuous improvement of
processes and systems
- The employees of Williams Motor Manufacturers meet regularly to
investigate problems and suggest solutions to the management. √
- They also monitor strategies to improve the smooth running of business
operations. √
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 1) (2)
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16 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
4.6.2 Application of PDCA model/cycle in improving the quality of
products
- Plan
o Williams Motor Manufacturers/WMM should identify the problem
and develop a plan for improvement to processes and systems. √√
o Answer questions such as 'What to do'/ 'How to do it'. √√
o Plan the new method and approach in order to improve the quality
of their products. √√
Sub-max. (2)
- Do
o WMM should implement the change on a small scale. √√
o Implement the processes and systems as planned. √√
Sub-max. (2)
- Check/Analyse
o Use data to analyse the results of change. √√
o Determine whether it made a difference and what needs to be
improved. √√
o Check whether the processes are working effectively. √√
o WMM should assess/test and establish if it is working/if things are
going according to plan. √√
Sub-max. (2)
- Act as needed
o Implement the improvement to meet the needs of the business. √√
o Devise strategies on how to continually improve. √√
o If the change was successful, implement it on a wider scale. √√
o WMM should continuously revise the process until they get it right
the first time. √√
Sub-max. (2)
- Any other relevant answer related to how WMM can apply the PDCA
model/cycle to improve the quality of their products.
NOTE: 1. The steps could be integrated in the application.
2. Award a maximum of FOUR (4) marks for only
mentioning the steps of the PDCA model.
Max. (8)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 4 MARKS
4.1 6
4.2 6
4.3 8
4.4 4
4.5 6
4.6.1 2
4.6.2 8
TOTAL 40
TOTAL SECTION B: 80
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2020) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 17
SECTION C
Mark the FIRST question ONLY.
QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
5.1 Introduction
- Businesses should always conduct the strategic management process as
they operate in a dynamic environment that pose many challenges. √
- The implementation of business strategies enables businesses to respond
to challenges presented by business environments. √
- Diversification and intensive strategies enable businesses to remain
sustainable in the market environment. √
- PESTLE analysis is used to identify and evaluate the factors in the
external environment that can influence the business. √
- PESTLE analysis enables businesses to have a better understanding of
the external environment and the industry in which it operates. √
- The effectiveness of business strategies must be evaluated so that best
strategies are used to overcome challenges. √
- Any other relevant introduction related to intensive strategies/
diversification strategies/PESTLE/strategy evaluation.
Any (2 x 1) (2)
5.2 Types of intensive strategies
Market penetration √√
- New products penetrate an existing market at a low price √, until it is well
known to the customers and then the prices increase. √
- It is a growth strategy where businesses focus on selling existing
products √ to existing markets. √
- Focuses on gaining a larger share of the market √ by reducing prices to
increase sales/increasing advertising and promotion. √
- Any other relevant answer related to market penetration as a type of
intensive strategy.
Type (2)
Description (2)
Sub-max. (4)
Market development √√
- A process of exploring/finding/searching new markets √ for existing
products. √
- Businesses sell their existing products √ to new markets √/Involves
targeting consumers in a potential market √ that is outside its normal target
market. √
- Business must research √ the market it wants to enter. √
- They change the way the products are distributed √ to reach a different
market. √
- Any other relevant answer related to market development as a type of
intensive strategy.
Type (2)
Description (2)
Sub-max. (4)
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18 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
Product development √√
- Businesses generate new ideas √ and develop a new product or
service. √
- The introduction of a new product or service √ into existing markets. √
- A business may need to acquire new technology √ to develop new
products. √
- They improve/change the packaging of current products √ so that they
look and seem different and appeal to the market. √
- Any other relevant answer related to product development as a type of
intensive strategy.
Type (2)
Description (2)
Sub-max. (4)
NOTE: Mark the first THREE (3) only.
(3 x 4) (12)
5.3 Advantages of diversification strategies
- Increase sales √ and business growth. √
- Improves the business brand √ and image of the business. √
- Reduces the risk √ of relying only on one product. √
- More products can be sold to existing customers √ and additional more
new markets can be established. √
- Businesses gain more technological capabilities √ through product
modification. √
- Diversification into a number of industries or product line √ can help create
a balance during economic fluctuations. √
- Business produces more output using less inputs √ as one factory may be
used to manufacture more products. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of diversification
strategies.
Max. (8)
5.4 PESTLE elements/factors posing challenges to businesses
Social
- Customers may not be able to afford products √ due to low income levels/
high unemployment. √
- Businesses may not be conversant √ with the language of their
customers. √
- Some customers may prefer to spend their money on medical bills √ for the
treatment of chronic illnesses. √
- High crime rate may affect the trading hours of businesses √ resulting in
decreased profit. √
- Any other relevant answer related to how the social factor as a PESTLE
element may pose a challenge to businesses.
Sub-max. (6)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2020) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 19
Technological
- Businesses may not keep up with/be aware √ of the latest technology. √
- Employees may not be skilled √ to operate/maintain new technology/
equipment. √
- Businesses may not be able to afford √ new technology. √
- May not be able to cater for/afford √ online transactions/e-commerce. √
- Any other relevant answer related to how the technological factor as a
PESTLE element may pose a challenge to businesses.
Sub-max. (6)
Legal
- Certain Acts may have a direct impact √ on a business, e.g. the CPA/
BCEA. √
- Legal requirements for operating certain types of businesses √ are time-
consuming. √
- High legal costs involved in obtaining a license/trade mark/patent √ may
prevent some establishments. √
- Legalities of business contracts √ may limit business operations. √
- Any other relevant answer related to how the legal factor as a PESTLE
element may pose a challenge to businesses.
Sub-max. (6)
Max. (16)
5.4 Steps in evaluating a strategy
- Examine the underlying basis of a business strategy. √√
- Look forward and backwards into the implementation process. √√
- Compare the expected performance with the actual performance. √√
- Measure the business performance in order to determine the reasons for
deviations and analyse these reasons. √√
- Take corrective action so that deviations may be corrected. √√
- Set specific dates for control and follow up. √√
- Draw up a table of the advantages and disadvantages of a strategy. √√
- Decide on the desired outcome. √√
- Consider the impact of the strategic implementation in the internal and
external environments of the business. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to steps that businesses should consider
when evaluating strategies.
NOTE: Accept steps in any order.
Max. (10)
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20 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
5.6 Conclusion
- The strategic management process enables businesses to stay ahead of
competitors and increase their market share. √√
- Businesses must develop/formulate or change their current strategies in
order to remain competitive. √√
- Businesses that apply the PESTLE analysis are able to respond quickly to
the external pressures and adapt to them. √√
- The implementation of diversification and intensive strategies may allow
businesses to recover from unstable economic conditions. √√
- Strategy evaluation enable businesses to keep abreast with changes in the
business environments. √√
- Any other relevant conclusion related to intensive strategies/diversification
strategies/PESTLE/strategy evaluation.
(Any 1 x 2) (2)
[40]
QUESTION 5: BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Types of intensive strategies 12
Advantages of diversification strategies 8 Max.
PESTLE elements/factors posing 32
challenges to businesses:
o Social 16
o Technological
o Legal
Steps in evaluating a strategy 10
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis, interpretation 2
Synthesis 2 8
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
*LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2020) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 21
QUESTION 6: BUSINESS OPERATIONS
6.1 Introduction
- The human resources manager (HRM) is responsible for selecting and
appointing competent and skilled employees. √
- The HRM can appoint the best candidate if the selection and interviewing
procedures are properly applied. √
- The aim of induction is to introduce the new employee to the job/the
new environment. √
- Some businesses offer fringe benefits in addition to the salaries to
employees. √
- Any other relevant introduction related to selection procedure/roles of
the interviewer when preparing for an interview/advantages of
induction/impact of fringe benefits. (Any 2 x 1) (2)
6.2 Selection procedure
OPTION 1
- Businesses should determine fair assessment criteria on which
selection will be based. √√
- Use the assessment criteria to assess all CVs/application forms
received during recruitment/preliminary screening is done by sorting the
applications received according to the criteria for the job. √√
- Check that applicants have not submitted false documents such as
forged certificates/degrees. √√
- Make a preliminary list of all applicants who qualify for the post. √√
- Screen and check references, e.g. check applicants' criminal
records/credit history/social media √√, etc.
- Conduct preliminary interviews to identify suitable applicants. √√
- Inform all applicants about the outcome of the application. √√
- Compile a shortlist of approximately five people. √√
- Invite the shortlisted applicants/candidates for an interview. √√
- Shortlisted candidates may be subjected to various types of selection
tests, e.g. skills test. √√
- A written offer is made to the chosen candidate. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the selection procedure/steps as
an activity of the human resources function.
OR
OPTION 2
- Receive documentation, e.g. application forms and sort it according to
the criteria of the job. √√
- Evaluate CVs and create a shortlist/Screen the applicants. √√
- Check information in the CVs and contact references. √√
- Conduct preliminary sifting interviews to identify applicants who are not
suitable for the job, although they meet all requirements. √√
- Assess/Test candidates who have applied for senior positions/to
ensure the best candidate is chosen. √√
- Conduct interviews with shortlisted candidates. √√
- Offer employment in writing to the selected candidate(s). √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the selection procedure/steps as
an activity of the human resources function.
NOTE: Accept the procedure/steps in any order. Max. (10)
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22 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
6.3 Roles of the interviewer when preparing for an interview
- The interviewer should develop a core set of questions √ based on the
skills/knowledge/ability required. √
- Check the application/verify the CV of every candidate √ for anything
that may need to be explained. √
- Book and prepare the venue √ for the interview. √
- Set the interview date √/Ensure that all interviews take place on the
same date, if possible. √
- Inform all shortlisted candidates about the date √ and place of the
interview. √
- Notify all panel members conducting the interview about the date √ and
place of the interview. √
- Allocate the same amount of time √ to interview each candidate on the
program. √
- Any other relevant answer related to roles of the interviewer when
preparing for an interview.
Max. (12)
6.4 Advantages of an induction programme for businesses
- Increases quality √ of performance/productivity. √
- Allows new employees to settle in quickly √ and work effectively. √
- Ensures that new employees understand rules √ and restrictions in the
business. √
- New employees may establish relationships √ with fellow employees at
different levels. √
- Employees will be familiar with organisational structures √, e.g. who are
their supervisors/low level manager. √
- Make new employees feel at ease in the workplace √, which reduces
anxiety/ insecurity/fear. √
- New employees will understand their role/responsibilities √ concerning
safety regulations and rules. √
- Minimises/Decreases the need √ for on-going training and
development. √
- The results obtained during the induction process √ provide a base for
focussed training. √
- Opportunities are created for new employees to experience/explore √
different departments. √
- New employees will know the layout of the building/factory/offices/
where everything is √, which saves production time. √
- Learn more about the business so that new employees understand their
roles/responsibilities √ in order to be more efficient. √
- Company policies are communicated √, regarding conduct and
procedures/safety and security/employment contract/conditions of
employment/working hours/leave. √
- Realistic expectations for new employees √ as well as the business are
created. √
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2020) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 23
- New employees may feel part of the team √ resulting in positive morale
and motivation. √
- Employees may have a better understanding of business policies √
regarding ethical/professional conduct/procedures/CSR, etc. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of an induction
programme for businesses.
Max. (14)
6.5 Impact of fringe benefits on businesses
Positives/Advantages
- Attractive fringe benefit packages √ may result in higher employee
retention/reduces employee turnover. √
- Attracts qualified/skilled/experienced employees √ who may positively
contribute towards the business goals/objectives. √
- It increases employee satisfaction/loyalty √ as they may be willing to go
the extra mile. √
- Improves productivity √ resulting in higher profitability. √
- Businesses save money √ as benefits are tax deductible. √
- Fringe benefits can be used as leverage √ for salary negotiations. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of
fringe benefits on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Fringe benefits are additional costs √ that may result in cash flow
problems. √
- Administrative costs increase √ as benefits need to be correctly recorded
for tax purposes. √
- Decreases business profits, √ as incentive/package/remuneration costs
are higher. √
- It can create conflict/lead to corruption √ if allocated unfairly. √
- Workers only stay with the business for fringe benefits, √ and may not
be committed/loyal to the tasks/business. √
- Businesses who offer employees different benefit plans may create
resentment √ among those who receive fewer benefits resulting in lower
productivity. √
- Businesses who cannot offer fringe benefits √ fail to attract skilled
workers. √
- Businesses have to pay advisors/attorneys √ to help them create benefit
plans that comply with legislation. √
- Errors in benefit plans √ may lead to costly lawsuits/regulatory fines. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/
disadvantages of fringe benefits on businesses.
Max. (10)
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24 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2020)
6.6 Conclusion
- The goals and objectives of businesses cannot be achieved without
qualified and skilled employees. √√
- Businesses should have suitable/effective selection procedure in
place. √√
- Employees are the most important resource in any business and its
success is strongly influenced by a good selection process which
includes a fair and well-planned interview. √√
- A well prepared and organised interview process will result in identifying
and appointing the most suitable and deserving candidate. √√
- A good induction programme enables new employees to have a basic
understanding of what is expected in the new job/position. √√
- Businesses should plan carefully for fringe benefits so that potential
candidates can consider the advantages and disadvantages of joining
the business. √√
- Any other relevant conclusion related to selection procedure/roles of the
interviewer when preparing for an interview/advantages of
induction/impact of fringe benefits.
(Any 1 x 2) (2)
[40]
QUESTION 6: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Selection procedure 10
Roles of the interviewer when preparing
12
for an interview Max.
Advantages of an induction programme 32
14
for businesses
Impact of fringe benefits on businesses 10
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis, interpretation 2
8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
*LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 150
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