Grade 12 Business Studies Paper 1 memorandum from the Eastern Cape Mock Exam 2022 (English), 33 pages. Read online or get the free PDF download, question paper linked when available.
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NATIONAL
SENIOR CERTIFICATE
SENIOR SERTIFIKAAT
GRADE 12
SEPTEMBER 2022
BUSINESS STUDIES P1
MARKING GUIDELINE
MARKS: 150
This marking guideline consists of 33 pages.
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2 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
NOTES TO MARKERS
1. PREAMBLE
The notes to markers are provided for quality assurance purposes to ensure
the following:
(a) Fairness, consistency and reliability in the standard of marking
(b) Facilitate the moderation of candidates' scripts at the different
levels
(c) Streamline the marking process considering the broad spectrum of
markers across the country
(d) Implement appropriate measures in the teaching, learning and
assessment of the subject at schools/institutions of learning
2. Candidates’ responses must be in full sentences for SECTIONS B and C.
However, this would depend on the nature of the question.
3. A comprehensive marking guideline has been provided but this is by no means
exhaustive. Due consideration should be given to an answer that is correct but:
• Uses a different expression from that which appears in the marking
guideline
• Comes from another credible source
• Original
• A different approach is used
NOTE: There is only ONE correct answer in SECTION A.
4. Take note of other relevant answers provided by candidates and allocate marks
accordingly. (In cases where the answer is unclear or indicates some
understanding, part-marks should be awarded, for example, one mark instead
of the maximum of two marks.)
5. The word ‘Sub-max.’ is used to facilitate the allocation of marks within a question
or sub-question.
6. The purpose of circling marks (guided by ‘max’ in the breakdown of marks) on
the right-hand side is to ensure consistency and accuracy in the marking of
scripts as well as for calculation and moderation purposes.
7. Subtotals to questions must be written in the right-hand margin. Circle the
subtotals as indicated by the allocation of marks. This must be guided by ‘max’
in the marking guidelines. Only the total for each question should appear in the
left-hand margin next to the appropriate question number.
8. In an indirect question, the theory as well as the response must be relevant and
related to the question.
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 3
9. Correct numbering of answers to questions or sub questions is recommended
in SECTIONS A and B. However, if the numbering is incorrect, follow the
sequence of the candidate’s responses. Candidates will be penalised if the
latter is not clear.
10. No additional credit must be given for repetition of facts. Indicate with an ‘R’.
11. The differentiation between ‘evaluate’ and ‘critically evaluate’ can be explained
as follows:
11.1 When ‘evaluate’ is used, candidates are expected to respond in either a
positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and negative)
stance, e.g. Positive: ‘COIDA eliminates time and costs spent √ on
lengthy civil court proceedings.’ √
11.2 When ‘critically evaluate’ is used, candidates are expected to respond in
either a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and
negative) stance. In this instance candidates are also expected to
support their responses with more depth, e.g. ‘COIDA eliminates time
and costs spent √ on lengthy civil court proceedings, √ because the
employer will not be liable for compensation to the employee for injuries
sustained during working hours as long as it can be proved that the
business was not negligent.’ √
NOTE: 1. The above could apply to ‘analyse’ as well.
2. Note the placing of the tick (√) in the allocation of marks.
12. The allocation of marks must be informed by the nature of the question,
cognitive verb used, mark allocation in the marking guideline and the context of
each question.
Cognitive verbs, such as:
12.1 Advise, name, state, outline, motivate, recommend, suggest, (list not
exhaustive) do not usually require much depth in candidates’ responses.
Therefore, the mark allocation for each statement/answer appears at the
end.
12.2 Define, describe, explain, discuss, elaborate, distinguish, differentiate,
compare, tabulate, analyse, evaluate, critically evaluate (list not
exhaustive) require a greater depth of understanding, application and
reasoning. Therefore, the marks must be allocated more objectively to
ensure that assessing is conducted according to established norms so
that uniformity, consistency and fairness are achieved.
13. Mark only the FIRST answer where candidates offer more than one answer for
SECTION B and C questions that require one answer.
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4 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
14. SECTION B
14.1 If for example, FIVE facts are required, mark the candidate's FIRST
FIVE responses and ignore the rest of the responses. Indicate by
drawing a line across the unmarked portion.
NOTE: 1. This applies only to questions where the number of facts
is specified.
2. The above also applies to responses in SECTION C
(where applicable)
14.2 If two facts are written in one sentence, award the candidate FULL
credit. Point 14.1 above still applies.
14.3 If candidates are required to provide their own examples/views,
brainstorm this to finalise alternative answers.
14.4 Use of the cognitive verbs and allocation of marks:
14.4.1 If the number of facts are specified, questions that require
candidates to 'describe/discuss/explain' may be marked as
follows:
• Fact 2 marks (or as indicated in the
marking guideline)
• Explanation 1 mark (two marks will be allocated in
SECTION C)
The ‘fact’ and ‘explanation’ are given separately in the
marking guideline to facilitate mark allocation.
14.4.2 If the number of facts required is not specified, the allocation
of marks must be informed by the nature of the question and
the maximum mark allocated in the marking guideline.
14.5 ONE mark may be awarded for answers that are easy to recall,
requires one-word answers or is quoted directly from a
scenario/case study. This applies to SECTIONS B and C in
particular (where applicable).
15. SECTION C
15.1 The breakdown of the mark allocation for the essays is as follows:
Introduction
Maximum:
Content
32
Conclusion
Insight 8
TOTAL 40
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 5
15.2 Insight consists of the following components:
Layout/Structure Is there an introduction, paragraphs and a conclusion? 2
Analysis and Is the candidate able to break down the question into 2
interpretation headings/subheadings/interpret it correctly to show
understanding of what is being asked?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
All headings addressed: 1 (One 'A')
Interpretation (16 to 32 marks): 1 (One 'A')
Synthesis Are there relevant decisions/facts/responses made based 2
on the questions?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
Option 1: Only relevant facts: 2 marks (No '-S')
Where a candidate answers 50% or more (two
to four sub-questions) of the question with only
relevant facts; no '-S' appears in the left
margin. Award the maximum of TWO (2) marks
for synthesis.
Option 2: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One '-S')
Where a candidate answers less than 50%
(only one sub-question) of the question with
only/some relevant facts; one '-S' appears in the
left margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1) mark
for synthesis.
Option 3: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One '-S')
Where a candidate writes FOUR questions, but
one/two/three sub-question of the question with
no relevant facts; one ‘-S’ appears in the left
margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1) mark for
synthesis.
Option 4: No relevant facts: 0 marks (Two '-S')
Where a candidate answers less than 50%
(only one sub-question) of the question with no
relevant facts; two '-S' appear in the left margin.
Award a ZERO mark for synthesis.
Originality Is there evidence of one or two examples, not older than two 2
(2) years that are based on recent information, current
trends and developments?
TOTAL FOR INSIGHT: 8
TOTAL MARKS FOR FACTS: 32
TOTAL MARKS FOR ESSAY (8 + 32): 40
NOTE: 1. No marks will be awarded for contents repeated from the
introduction and conclusion.
2. The candidate forfeits marks for layout if the words
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not stated.
3. No marks will be awarded for layout, if the headings
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not supported by an
explanation.
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6 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
15.3 Indicate insight in the left-hand margin with a symbol e.g. ('L, A, -S and/or O').
15.4 The breakdown of marks is indicated at the end of the suggested answer/
marking guideline to each question.
15.5 Mark all relevant facts until the SUB MAX/MAX mark in a subsection has been
attained. Write SUB MAX/MAX after maximum marks have been obtained but
continue reading for originality “O”.
15.6 At the end of each essay indicate the allocation of marks for facts and marks
for insight as follows: (L – Layout, A – Analysis, S – Synthesis, O – Originality)
as in the table below.
CONTENT MARKS
Facts 32 (max.)
L 2
A 2
S 2
O 2
TOTAL 40
15.7 When awarding marks for facts, take note of the sub-maxima indicated,
especially if candidates do not make use of the same subheadings.
Remember, headings and subheadings are encouraged and contribute to
insight (structuring/logical flow/sequencing) and indicate clarity of thought.
(See MARK BREAKDOWN at the end of each question.)
15.8 If the candidate identifies/interprets the question INCORRECTLY, then
he/she may still obtain marks for layout.
15.9 If a different approach is used by candidates, ensure that the answers are
assessed according to the mark allocation/subheadings as indicated in the
marking guideline.
15.10 15.10.1 Award TWO marks for complete sentences. Award ONE mark for
phrases, incomplete sentences and vague answers.
15.10.2 With effect from November 2015, the TWO marks will not
necessarily appear at the end of each completed sentence. The
ticks (√) will be separated and indicated next to each fact, e.g.
‘Product development is a growth strategy, √ where businesses
aim to introduce new products into existing markets.’ √
This will be informed by the nature and context of the question, as
well as the cognitive verb used.
15.11 With effect from November 2017, the maximum of TWO (2) marks for facts
shown as headings in the marking guidelines, will not necessarily apply to
each question. This would also depend on the nature of the question.
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 7
SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1 1.1.1 B √√
1.1.2 A √√
1.1.3 D √√
1.1.4 C √√
1.1.5 B √√
(5 x 2) (10)
1.2 1.2.1 privacy√√
1.2.2 secondary √√
1.2.3 description √√
1.2.4 resignation √√
1.2.5 assurance √√
(5 x 2) (10)
1.3 1.3.1 F √√
1.3.2 J √√
1.3.3 H √√
1.3.4 G √√
1.3.5 B √√
(5 x 2) (10)
TOTAL SECTION A: 30
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 1 MARKS
1.1 10
1.2 10
1.3 10
TOTAL 30
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8 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
SECTION B
Mark the FIRST TWO answers only.
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
2.1 Types of intensive strategies
- Market penetration √
- Market development √
- Product development √
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 1) (2)
2.2 Rights of employers in terms of the Labour Relations Act/LRA
- Employers may form employer organisations. √√
- Form a bargaining council for collective bargaining purposes. √√
- Employers have the right to lockout employees who engage in
unprotected/illegal strike/labour action. √√
- Dismiss employees who are engaged in an unprotected strike/misconduct
such as intimidation/violence during a strike action. √√
- Right not to pay an employee who has taken part in a protected strike for
services/work they did not do during the strike. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the rights of employers in terms of the
Labour Relations Act.
Max. (4)
2.3 Diversification strategies
2.3.1 Concentric diversification √√ (2)
2.3.2 Other types of diversification strategies
Horizontal diversification √√
- The business adds new products or services that are unrelated to
existing products, but which may appeal to existing customers. √
- Occurs when a business acquires or merges with a business that is
at the same production stage, but it may offer a different product. √
- Any other relevant answer related to horizontal as a diversification
strategy.
Strategy (2)
Explanation (1)
Sub-max. (3)
Conglomerate diversification √√
- The business adds new products or services that are unrelated to existing
products which may appeal to new groups of customers. √
- Conglomerate diversification means that a business grows into new
products, services and markets. √
- Occurs when a business wants to increase its product range and target
markets. √
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 9
- Any other relevant answer related to conglomerate as a
diversification strategy.
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
Strategy (2)
Explanation (1)
Sub-max. (3)
Max. (6)
2.4 Advantages of Broad-Based Black Economic Empowerment Act for
businesses
- Businesses that comply with BBBEE regarding the pillars √ will be rated
high on the BEE scorecard/may get government tenders/may attract other
BBBEE business partners/-suppliers. √
- Encourages businesses to address the demands√ for redress/equity
directly. √
- Provides a variety of business codes√ to improve employment equity. √
- Provides for human resources development√ through training and
development. √
- Promotes enterprise development, √ by developing entrepreneurial skills
of designated people to start their own businesses. √
- Businesses will have a good overview on how it is performing √ in
comparison to other businesses in the rest of the country. √
- A good BBBEE rating√ will improve the image of the business. √
- By focusing on BBBEE, the business will show commitment√ towards the
social/education/economic developments in the community/
country. √
- Once rated, the business will understand how to develop BBBEE
strategies √ that will increase its BBBEE ratings on an annual basis. √
- Fronting is discouraged, √ as it may lead to the disqualification of a
business's entire scorecard/BBBEE status. √
- Share prices of BBBEE compliant businesses are likely to increase√ as
they attract more investors. √
- Businesses that support Small, Micro, Medium Enterprises (SMMEs)√,
may increase their own BBBEE ratings. √
- Complying with BBBEE requirements gives businesses
experience/exposure√ to be able to provide better employment
opportunities/staff development. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of BBBEE for
businesses.
Max. (6)
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10 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
2.5 Provisions of the BCEA from the scenario
PROVISIONS MOTIVATIONS
1. Overtime √√ Employees at MM are only permitted to work an
additional three hours per day beyond their normal
working hours. √
2. Child and forced MM also ensures that children over the age of 15 do
labour √√ not do work that is harmful to their health. √
Sub-max. (4) Sub-max. (2)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. The answer does not have to be in tabular format.
3. Award marks for the provisions of the BCEA even if the
motivations were incomplete.
4. Do not award marks for the motivations if the provisions of
the BCEA were incorrectly identified.
5 Accept responses in any order.
Max. (6)
2.6 Challenges posed by the PESTLE factors
2.6.1 Legal
- Certain acts may have a direct impact on a business √ such as the
CPA/BCEA. √
- Legal requirements for operating certain types of businesses √ is
time-consuming. √
- High legal costs√ involved in obtaining a licence/trademark/patent
may prevent some establishments. √
- Legalities of business contracts √ may limit business
operations. √
- Any other relevant answer related to how the legal factor as a
PESTLE element pose challenges to businesses.
Max. (4)
2.6.2 Environmental
- Chemicals/Ingredients in business’ products √ may be harmful to
customers. √
- Measures to dispose of business waste √ may be expensive. √
- Packaging of some products √ may not be environmentally
friendly/ may not be recyclable. √
- Any other relevant answer related to how the environmental factor
as a PESTLE element pose challenges to businesses.
Max. (4)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 11
2.7 Ways in which business could comply with the National Credit Act
- Offer applicants pre-agreement statements. √√
- Disclose all costs of loan/No hidden costs should be charged/added. √√
- Obtain credit records/checks of clients before granting loans. √√
- Businesses should be registered with the National Credit Regulator. √√
- Submit an annual compliance report to the National Credit
Regulator. √√
- Conduct affordability assessment to ensure the consumer has the ability to
meet his/her obligation. √√
- Conduct credit check with a registered credit bureau and consult with
National Credit Register. √√
- Businesses must have procedures in place to comply with the provision of
the Financial Intelligence Centre Act (FICA). √√
- Verify the identity of clients, report suspicious transactions/train staff on
their obligations in terms of FICA. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which business could comply
with the National Credit Act.
Max. (6)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 2 MARKS
2.1 2
2.2 4
2.3.1 2
2.3.2 6
2.4 6
2.5 6
2.6.1 4
2.6.2 4
2.7 6
TOTAL 40
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12 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
QUESTION 3: BUSINESS OPERATIONS
3.1 Aspects that should be included in an induction programme
- Safety regulations and rules. √
- Overview of the business. √
- Information about the business products/services. √
- Meeting with senior management who will explain the company's
vision/values/job descriptions/daily tasks. √
- Tour of the premises. √
- Introduction to key people and close colleagues. √
- Conditions of employment, e.g. working hours/leave application process/
disciplinary procedures, √ etc.
- Administration details on systems/processes/logistics. √
- Discussion of the employment contract and conditions of service. √
- Discussion on personnel policies, e.g. making private phone calls/using the
internet, √ etc.
- Discussion on employee benefits. √
- Corporate social responsibility programmes. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the aspects that should be included in
an induction programme.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only.
(4 x 1) (4)
3.2 Legal requirements of an employment contract
- Both the employer and employee must sign the contract/have contractual
capacity. √√
- Employer and employee must agree to any changes to the contract. √√
- No party may unilaterally change aspects of the employment contract. √√
- The remuneration package/including benefits must be clearly indicated. √√
- The contract may not contain any requirements that are in conflict with the
BCEA. √√
- The employment contract should include a code of conduct and a code of
ethics. √√
- Aspects of the employment contract can be renegotiated during the course
of employment. √√
- The employer must explain the terms and conditions of the employment
contract to the employee. √√
- Conditions of employment/duties/responsibilities of the employees must
be stipulated clearly. √√
- All business policies, procedures and disciplinary codes/rules should form
part of the employment contract. √√
- The employer must allow the employee to thoroughly read through the
contract before it is signed. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the legal requirements of an
employment contract.
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
(2 x 2) (4)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 13
3.3 Recruitment procedure
3.3.1 Steps of the recruitment procedure from the scenario
- The human resources manager prepared a job analysis to
identify the recruitment needs of the business. √
- The vacancy was internally advertised via internal email. √
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Only award marks for responses that are quoted
from the scenario.
(2 x 1) (2)
3.3.2 Role of the interviewer during the interview
- Allocate the same amount of time √ to each candidate. √
- Introduce members of the interviewing panel √ to each
candidate/interviewee. √
- Make the interviewee √ feel at ease. √
- Explain the purpose of the interview to the panel √ and the
interviewee. √
- Pose the same set of questions √ to all candidates/interviewees. √
- Record interviewees’ responses √ for future reference. √
- Do not misinform/mislead √ the interviewee. √
- Avoid discriminatory/controversial√ types of questions. √
- Provide an opportunity for the interviewee √ to ask questions. √
- Close the interview by thanking the interviewee √ for attending
the interview. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the role of interviewer
during the interview.
Max. (6)
3.4 Benefits of induction for businesses
- Allows new employees to settle in quickly and work effectively. √
- Ensures that new employees understand rules and restrictions in the
business. √√
- New employees may establish relationships with fellow employees at
different levels. √√
- Make new employees feel at ease in the workplace, which reduces
anxiety/insecurity/fear. √√
- The results obtained during the induction process provide a base for
focused training. √√
- Increases quality of performance/productivity which promotes the effective
use of working methods/resources. √√
- Minimises the need for on-going training and development. √√
- Employees will be familiar with organisational structures such as their
supervisors/low level managers. √√
- Opportunities are created for new employees to experience/explore
different departments. √√
- New employees will understand their role/responsibilities concerning safety
regulations and rules. √√
- New employees will know the layout of the building/factory/offices/where
everything is, which saves production time. √√
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14 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
- Learn more about the business so that new employees understand their
roles/ responsibilities in order to be more efficient. √√
- Company policies are communicated, regarding conduct and
procedures/safety and security/employment contract/conditions of
employment/working hours/ leave. √√
- Realistic expectations for new employees as well as the business are
created. √√
- New employees may feel part of the team resulting in positive morale/
motivation. √√
- Employees may have a better understanding of business policies
regarding ethical/professional conduct/procedures/CSR. √√
- Reduces the staff turnover as new employees have been inducted
properly. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of induction for
businesses.
Max. (4)
3.5 Quality indicators of the marketing function
- Winning customers by satisfying their needs/wants and building positive
relationships. √√
- Adhering to ethical advertising practices when promoting products/
services. √√
- Identifying a competitive advantage to focus/improve on marketing
strengths. √√
- Differentiating products in order to attract more customers. √√
- Constantly reviewing value issues. √√
- Communicating effectively with customers to get feedback about their
experience of products sold/services rendered. √√
- Co-ordinating distribution with production and advertising strategies. √√
- Using pricing techniques to ensure a competitive advantage. √√
- Determine gaps between customer expectations and actual experiences,
so that problems/unhappiness may be diagnosed and addressed. √√
- Making adjustments/changes to products/services based on feedback from
customers/results of market research. √√
- Using aggressive advertising campaigns to sustain/increase the market
share. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the quality indicators of the marketing
function.
Max. (4)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 15
3.6 Total quality management elements from the scenario
TQM ELEMENTS MOTIVATIONS
1. Total client/customer ACL always request their customers to give
satisfaction √√ feedback on the quality of their products. √
2. Adequate financing and ACL can afford to pay market researchers to
capacity √√ gather information. √
Sub-max. (4) Sub-max. (2)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. The answer does not have to be in tabular format.
3. Award marks for the TQM elements even if the motivations
were incomplete.
4. Do not award marks for the motivations if the TQM elements
were incorrectly identified.
5. Accept responses in any order.
Max. (6)
3.7 Benefits of a good quality management system
- Effective customer services are rendered, √ resulting in increased customer
satisfaction. √
- Time and resources √ are used efficiently. √
- Productivity increases √ through proper time management/using high quality
resources. √
- Products/Services are constantly improved √ resulting in increased levels of
customer satisfaction. √
- Vision/Mission/Business goals√ may be achieved. √
- A business has a competitive advantage√ over its competitors. √
- Regular training will continuously improve√ the quality of employees’ skills/
knowledge. √
- Employers and employees will have a healthy working relationship√ resulting
in happy/productive workers. √
- Increased market share/more customers √ improve profitability. √
- Improves business image √ as there are less defects/returns. √
- Any other relevant answer related to benefits of a good quality management
system.
Max. (6)
3.8 Role of quality circles as part of continuous improvement to processes
and systems
- Solve problems related to quality and implement improvements. √√
- Investigate problems and suggest solutions to management. √√
- Ensure that there are no duplication of activities/tasks in the workplace. √√
- Make suggestions for improving systems and processes in the workplace. √√
- Improve the quality of products/services/productivity through regular reviews
of quality processes. √√
- Monitor/Reinforce strategies to improve the smooth running of business
operations. √√
- Increase employees’ morale and motivation. √√
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16 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
- Quality circles discuss ways of improving the quality of work/
workmanship. √√
- Contribute towards the improvement and development of the organisation. √√
- Reduce costs of redundancy/wasteful efforts in the long run. √√
- Increase the demand for products/services of the business. √√
- Create harmony and high performance in the workplace. √√
- Build a healthy workplace relationship between the employer and
employee. √√
- Improve employees’ loyalty/commitment to the organisational goals. √√
- Improve employees’ communication at all levels of the business. √√
- Develop a positive attitude/sense of involvement in decision making processes
of the services offered. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the role of quality circles as part of
continuous improvement to processes and systems.
Max. (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 3 MARKS
3.1 4
3.2 4
3.3.1 2
3.3.2 6
3.4 4
3.5 4
3.6 6
3.7 6
3.8 4
TOTAL 40
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 17
QUESTION 4: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
4.1 Meaning of learnerships
- Agreement between a learner/trainee and an employer/a training provider √
to use the workplace as an active learning environment. √
- Theoretical/Practical training opportunities√ that can lead to a recognised
occupational qualification. √
- Structured learning programme √ completed during work hours for a
specified period of time. √
- May include employment for a specified period √ after learnership is
completed. √
- Includes a training course with learning material √ as well as practical work
experience. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the meaning of learnership.
Max. (2)
4.2 Challenges and business environments from the scenario
CHALLENGES BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
(4.2.1) (4.2.2)
1. The suppliers of HC do not Market √
always deliver materials on
time. √
2. The recent increase in the fuel Macro √
price is affecting their sales. √
3. The management of HC lacks Micro √
the necessary skills to run the
business successfully. √
Max. (3) Max. (3)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first THREE (3) challenges only.
2. If the business environment is not linked to the challenge,
mark the challenge only.
3. Award marks for the business environments even if the
quoted challenges were incomplete.
4. Accept responses in any order.
Max. (6)
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18 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
4.3 Strategic management process
OPTION 1
- Have a clear vision/mission statement/measurable/realistic objective √
in place. √
- Identify opportunities/weaknesses/strengths/threats √ by conducting
environmental scanning/situational analysis. √
- Tools available for environmental scanning √ may include a SWOT
analysis/Porter’s Five Forces model/PESTLE analysis/industrial analysis
tools. √
- Formulate alternative strategies √ to respond to the challenges. √
- Develop (an) action plan(s), √ including the tasks to be done/deadlines to be
met/ resources to be procured. √
- Implement selected strategies √ by communicating it to all stakeholders/
organising business resources/motivating staff. √
- Continuously evaluate/monitor/measure strategies √ in order to take
corrective action. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.
OR
OPTION 2
- Review/Analyse/Re-examine√ their vision/mission statement. √
- Conduct an environmental analysis√ using models such as
SWOT/PESTLE/Porter’s Five Forces. √
- Formulate a strategy, √ such as a defensive/retrenchment strategy. √
- Implement a strategy, √ using a template such as an action plan. √
- Control/Evaluate/Monitor the implemented strategy √ to identify
gaps/deviations in implementation. √
- Take corrective action √ to ensure goals/objectives are met. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.
Max. (6)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 19
4.4 Impact of the Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases
Amendment Act on businesses
Positives/Advantages
- Promotes safety √ in the workplace. √
- Employees do not contribute √ towards this fund. √
- Claiming processes √ are relatively simple. √
- Eliminates time and costs spent √ on lengthy civil court proceedings. √
- Any compensation to an employee/the family √ is exempt from income tax. √
- Employers are protected from financial burden should an accident occur in
the workplace √ provided that the employer was not negligent. √
- Makes businesses more socially responsible √ as they cannot just employ
workers at random in dangerous working conditions. √
- Workers are treated with dignity and respect √ as businesses view them as
valuable assets and not just as workers. √
- Covers all employees at the workplace √ if both parties meet all the
necessary safety provisions in the Act. √
- Creates a framework √ for acceptable employment practices/safety
regulations. √
- Supply administrative guidelines/mechanisms √ for dealing with/processing
claims. √
- Employees are compensated financially for any injury/disability √ resulting
from performing their duties at their workplace. √
- In the event of the death of an employee as a result of a work-related
accident/ disease, √ his/her dependent(s) will receive financial support. √
- Employees receive medical assistance √ provided there is no other medical
assistance option. √/Cannot claim medical assistance from the fund √ and
medical aid. √
- Medical expenses/Other types of compensation are paid to employees
and/or their families √ depending on the type/severity of the injuries. √
- Employers have to pay a monthly amount to the Compensation Fund √
depending on the number of employees/the level of risk they are exposed
to. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/ advantages of the
Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases Amendment Act on
businesses.
AND/OR
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20 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Claiming processes/procedures √ can be time consuming for businesses. √
- Military workers √ are not covered. √
- Workers who are temporarily/permanently employed in foreign countries√ are
not covered. √
- Employers may be forced to pay heavy penalties √ if they are found guilty of
negligence/not enforcing safety measures. √
- Implementation processes/procedures required by the Act √ may be
expensive.√
- Procedures required by this Act may be costly √ as paperwork places an extra
administrative burden on businesses. √
- Employers have to register all their workers/make annual contributions to
COIDA, √ which may result in cash flow problems. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of the
Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases Amendment Act on
businesses.
Max. (6)
BUSINESS OPERATIONS
4.5 Sources of external recruitment
- Recruitment agencies √
- Billboards √
- Printed media such as newspapers/flyers/magazine/posters/government
gazette √
- Electronic media such as radio/internet/TV √
- Social media/Social networks/Business websites √
- Walk-ins √
- Head hunting √
- Professional associations √
- Networking √
- Educational/Training institutions √
- Word-of-mouth √
- Any other relevant answer related to the sources of external recruitment.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only.
(4 x 1) (4)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 21
4.6 Selection procedure as a human resource activity
OPTION 1
- Determine fair assessment criteria on which selection will be based. √√
- Applicants must submit the application forms/curriculum vitae and certified
copies of personal documents/IDs/proof of qualifications, etc. √√
- Sort the received documents/CVs according to the assessment/selection
criteria. √√
- Screen/Determine which applications meet the minimum job requirements
and separate these from the rest. √√
- Preliminary interviews are conducted if many suitable applications were
received. √√
- Reference checks should be made to verify the content of CVs, e.g.
contact previous employers to check work experience. √√
- Compile a shortlist of potential candidate's identified. √√
- Shortlisted candidates may be subjected to various types of selection tests
e.g. skills tests, √√ etc.
- Invite shortlisted candidates for an interview. √√
- A written offer is made to the selected candidate. √√
- Inform unsuccessful applicants about the outcome of their
application./Some adverts indicate the deadline for informing only
successful candidates. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the selection procedure as a human
resource activity.
OR
OPTION 2
- Receive documentation, e.g. application forms and sort it according to the
criteria of the job. √√
- Evaluate CVs and create a shortlist/Screen the applicants. √√
- Check information in the CVs and contact references. √√
- Conduct preliminary sifting interviews to identify applicants who are not
suitable for the job, although they meet all requirements. √√
- Assess/Test candidates who have applied for senior positions/to ensure
the best candidate is chosen. √√
- Conduct interviews with shortlisted candidates. √√
- Offer employment in writing to the selected candidate(s). √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the selection procedure as a human
resource activity.
NOTE: The procedure may be in any order.
Max. (6)
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22 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
4.7 Quality indicators of the purchasing function
4.7.1 Business function from the scenario
Purchasing function √√ (2)
4.7.2 Other quality indicators of the purchasing function
- Businesses should buy raw materials/products in bulk √ at lower
prices. √
- Select reliable suppliers that render the best quality raw
materials/capital goods √ at reasonable prices. √
- Effective co-ordination between purchasing and production
departments √ so that purchasing staff understand the requirements
of the production process. √
- Required quantities should be delivered √ at the right time and
place. √
- Implement/Maintain stock control systems √ to ensure the security
of stock. √
- Maintain optimum stock levels√ to avoid overstocking/reduce out-
dated stock. √
- Monitor and report on minimum stock levels √ to avoid stock-outs. √
- Effective use of storage space √ and maintain product quality while
in storage. √
- Involve suppliers √ in strategic planning/product design/material
selection/quality control process. √
- Ensure that there is no break in production √ due to stock
shortages. √
- Establish relationships with suppliers √ so that they are in alignment
with the business’s vision/mission/values. √
- Have a thorough understanding √ of supply chain management. √
- Any other relevant answer related to other quality indicators of the
purchasing function.
NOTE: Do not award marks for responses quoted in
QUESTION 4.7.1.
Max. (4)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 23
4.8 Impact of total quality management (TQM) if poorly implemented by
businesses
- Setting unrealistic deadlines that may not be achieved. √√
- Employees may not be adequately trained resulting in poor quality
products. √√
- Decline in productivity, because of stoppages. √√
- Businesses may not be able to make necessary changes of
products/services to satisfy the needs of customers. √√
- Businesses’ reputation/image may suffer because of poor
quality/defective goods. √√
- Customers will have many alternatives to choose from and the impact
could be devastating to businesses. √√
- Investors might withdraw investment, if there is a decline in profits. √√
- Decline in sales√ as more goods are returned by unhappy customers. √√
- High staff turnover, because of poor skills development. √√
- Undocumented/Uncontrolled quality control processes/systems could
result in errors/deviations from pre-set quality standards. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the impact of TQM if poorly
implemented by businesses.
Max. (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 4 MARKS
4.1 2
4.2.1 3
4.2.2 3
4.3 6
4.4 6
4.5 4
4.6 6
4.7.1 2
4.7.2 4
4.8 4
TOTAL 40
TOTAL SECTION B: 80
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24 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
SECTION C
Mark the FIRST question only.
QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (LEGISLATION)
5.1 Introduction
- The CPA was introduced to redress the economic inequalities of the past. √
- The consumer rights stipulated in the CPA also provide protection to
businesses as they are also consumers. √
- The stipulations in the CPA ensure that businesses respect consumer rights
by complying with the CPA. √
- Penalties/consequences for non-compliance encourage businesses to
comply with this Act. √
- Any other relevant introduction related to the purpose of the CPA/consumer
rights as stipulated in the CPA/impact of the CPA/penalties for non-
compliance with the CPA.
(Any 2 x 1) (2)
5.2 Purpose of the Consumer Protection Act
- Promotes responsible consumer behaviour. √√
- Establishes national standards to protect consumers. √√
- The act establishes a National Consumer Commission (NCC). √√
- Establishes national standards to protect consumers. √√
- Promotes and protects the economic interests of consumers by providing
access to information. √√
- Promotes fair/accessible and sustainable places for people to sell their
products. √√
- Promotes consistent laws relating to consumer transaction and
agreement. √√
- Promotes the rights and full participation of historically disadvantaged
individuals as consumers. √√
- Promotes consumer safety by protecting them from hazardous
products/services. √√
- Provides guidelines for better consumer information and to prohibit unfair
business practices. √√
- Ensures that consumers have access to information they need to make
informed choices. √√
- Ensures that consumers are not misled/deceived by suppliers of
goods/services. √√
- Empowers consumers to take legal action if their rights are not
upheld. √√
- Strengthens a culture of consumer rights and responsibilities. √√
- Protects consumers against contracts that include unfair terms which limit
the liability of suppliers. √√
- Protects consumers against dishonest businesses such as fly-by-night
franchisors. √√
- Allows for consumers and businesses to resolve disputes fairly/
effectively. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of the Consumer
Protection Act.
Max. (12)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 25
5.3 Consumer rights as stipulated in the CPA
5.3.1 Right to choose
- Consumers have the right to:
o choose √ suppliers and/or goods. √
o shop around √ for the best prices. √
o return goods √ that are unsafe/defective for a full refund. √
o reject goods √ that are not the same as the sample
marketed. √
o cancel/renew √ fixed term agreements. √
o request written quotations √ and cost estimates. √
o Any other relevant answer related to the right to choose as
stipulated in the CPA.
Sub-max. (6)
5.3.2 Right to information about products and agreements/Right to
disclosure and information
- Contracts and agreements should be in plain language √ and
easy to understand. √
- Businesses should display prices √ which are fully inclusive
disclosing all costs. √
- Businesses should label products √ and trade descriptions
correctly. √
- Consumers may request the unit √ and bulk price of the same
product. √
- If two prices for the same product are displayed, √ consumers
should pay the lower price. √
- All information related to the country of origin, √ expiry
dates/ingredients of the products should be disclosed. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the right to information about
products and agreements/right to disclosure and information as
stipulated in the CPA.
Sub-max. (6)
5.3.3 Right to equality in the consumer marketplace
- Businesses should not limit access √ to goods and services. √
- Businesses may not vary √ the quality of their goods to different
consumers. √
- Businesses should not discriminate √ when marketing their
products and services in different areas/places. √
- Businesses may not charge different prices √ for the same
goods/services. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the right to equality in the
consumer marketplace as stipulated in the CPA.
Sub-max. (6)
Max. (14)
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26 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
5.4 Impact of CPA on businesses
Positives/Advantages
- Businesses may be safeguarded √ from dishonest competitors. √
- Businesses may be protected √ if they are regarded as consumers. √
- Prevents larger businesses √ from undermining smaller ones. √
- May gain consumer loyalty, √ if they comply with CPA. √
- Enables businesses to resolve disputes fairly √ through the National
Consumer Commission/Consumer Court/Industrial ombudsmen. √
- Businesses may build a good image √ if they ensure that they do not violate
consumer rights. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of CPA
on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Confidential business information √ may become available to competitors. √
- Penalties for non-compliance √ may be very high. √
- Businesses may feel unnecessarily burdened√ by legal processes. √
- They have to disclose more information √ about their products and
processes/services. √
- Processes and procedures required by CPA √ can be expensive and time
consuming. √
- Consumers can take advantage of a business √ and return goods when it is
not necessary to do so. √
- Staff need to be trained /Legal experts need to be consulted, √ which can
increase costs. √
- Many business documents need to be simplified /revamped at extra cost√ as
consumers have a right to receive contracts in simple/understandable
language. √
- Administration costs increase as legal contracts √ need to be worded in plain
language/pitched at the level of the consumer. √
- Businesses may need insurance against claims from consumers/ provisions
in the Act √ increase risks for unforeseen claims and lawsuits. √
- Businesses have to replace/repair faulty items/refund money √ if the fault
occurs within six months after purchase. √
- Supply chain management in stock levels will have to change, √ as
defective goods have to be replaced within six months at the request of the
consumer. √
- Information technology systems need to be improved √ as the retailer must
keep more detailed records of interactions with consumers /be able to
report to the National Consumer Commission. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/ disadvantages of
CPA on businesses.
Max. (14)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 27
5.5 Penalties businesses may face for non-compliance with the CPA
- A contract may be rendered void or a fine or term of direct imprisonment
may be imposed. √√
- Businesses may face fines or imprisonment for a period not exceeding
10 years. √√
- Government agencies may conduct audits, enact fines or even dissolve
your business entirely. √√
- Businesses will be forced to compensate consumers in line with the
extent to which their rights have been violated. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the penalties businesses may face
for non-compliance with the CPA.
Max. (6)
5.6 Conclusion
- Consumers welcomed the introduction of the Consumer Protection Act as
it created awareness and protection of consumer rights. √√
- The consumer rights in the CPA applies to cash and credit
transactions. √√
- The CPA protects consumers against dishonest businesses and against
contracts that include unfair terms. √√
- Business should strive to comply with the CPA to prevent penalties and
negative publicity. √√
- Any other relevant conclusion related to the purpose of the CPA/consumer
rights as stipulated in the CPA/impact of the CPA/penalties for non-
compliance with the CPA.
(Any 1 x 2) (2)
[40]
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28 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
QUESTION 5: BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Purpose of the Consumer Protection Act 12
Consumer rights as stipulated in the CPA: Max.
o Right to choose 32
o Right to information about products and
agreements/Right to disclosure and 14
information
o Right to equality in the consumer
marketplace
Impact of the CPA on businesses 14
Penalties businesses may face for non-
6
compliance with the CPA.
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis, interpretation 2
Synthesis 2 8
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
*LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
QUESTION 6: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (QUALITY OF PERFORMANCE)
6.1 Introduction
- The production manager should put systems in place to ensure that quality
products are produced. √
- Quality management should not just be an inspection process, but become
part of the culture of the business. √
- Quality performance ensures that the activities of all business functions
must be properly managed to ensure that all departments adhere to the
same quality standards. √
- Continuous skills development allows employees access to necessary
skills required to achieve their targets. √
- Monitoring and evaluation of quality processes will ensure that corrective
actions are taken when needed. √
- The effective implementation of TQM may give businesses a competitive
advantage over other businesses. √
- Any other relevant introduction related to the quality indicators of
production function/quality management and quality performance /impact
of continuous skills development/monitoring and evaluation of quality
processes/ways in which TQM can reduce the cost of quality.
(Any 2 x 1) (2)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 29
6.2 Quality indicators of the production function
- Provide high quality services/products according to specifications. √√
- The production/operating processes of a business should be done
correctly through proper production planning and control. √√
- Products and services should be produced at the lowest possible cost to
allow for profit maximisation. √√
- Businesses should clearly communicate the roles and responsibilities to
the production workforce. √√
- Products must meet customers' requirements by being safe, reliable and
durable. √√
- Businesses should have good after-sales services and warrantees. √√
- Empower workers so that they can take pride in their workmanship. √√
- Get accreditation from the SABS/ISO 9001 to ensure that quality products
are being produced. √√
- Specify the product or service standards and take note of the factors that
consumers use to judge quality. √√
- Monitor processes and find the root causes of production problems. √√
- Implement quality control systems to ensure that quality products are
consistently being produced. √√
- Utilise machines and equipment optimally. √√
- Accurately calculate the production costs. √√
- Select the appropriate production system e.g. mass/batch/jobbing. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the quality indicators of the
production function.
Max. (12)
6.3 Differences between quality management and quality performance
QUALITY MANAGEMENT QUALITY PERFORMANCE
- Techniques/tools √ used to - Total performance of each
design/improve the quality of a department measured √ against
product. √ the specified standards. √
- Can be used for accountability √ - Can be obtained if all departments
within each of the business work together √ towards the same
functions. √ quality standards. √
- Aims to ensure that the quality of - Quality is measured √ through
goods/services √ is consistent √/ physical product/statistical output
Focuses on the means √ to of processes/surveys of the users
achieve consistency. √ and/ or buyers of goods/
services. √
- Any other relevant answer related - Any other relevant answer related
to quality management. to quality performance.
Sub-max. (4) Sub-max. (4)
NOTE: 1. The answer does not have to be in a tabular format.
2. The differences do not have to link but must be clear.
3. Award a maximum of FOUR (4) marks if the differences
are not clear/Mark either quality management or quality
management only.
Max. (8)
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30 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
6.4 Impact of continuous skills development and monitoring and evaluation
of quality processes as TQM elements on large businesses
6.4.1 Continuous skills development/Education and training
Positives/Advantages
- Large businesses have a human resources department √
dedicated to skills training and development. √
- Human resources experts ensure that training programmes are
relevant√ to increased customer satisfaction. √
- Ability to afford√ specialised/skilled employees. √
- Large businesses could conduct skills audits to establish the
competency/education levels of staff performing work √ which
could affect the quality of products/processes positively. √
- May be able to hire qualified trainers√ to train employees on a
regular basis. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive
impact/advantages of continuous skill development as a TQM
element on large business.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Poor communication systems in large businesses √ may
prevent effective training from taking place. √
- Trained employees may leave for better jobs√ after they gained
more skills. √
- De-motivates employees, √ if they do not receive recognition for
training. √
- Employees who specialise in narrowly defined jobs √ may become
frustrated/ demotivated. √
- Employees may not be aware of the level of competency they
should meet√ in order to achieve their targets. √
- It may be difficult to monitor/evaluate √ the effectiveness of
training. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative
impact/disadvantages of continuous skill development as a TQM
element on large business
Sub-max. (8)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 31
6.4.2 Monitoring and evaluation of quality processes
Positives/Advantages
- Prevents product defects √ and minimises wastage/customer
complaints. √
- Good quality checks/procedures √ minimises the replacement/
breakdown of equipment/machinery on a regular basis. √
- May be equipped √ to get things done right the first time. √
- Improve performance √ and maintain high quality standards. √
- Improve current and future management √ of quality
outputs/outcomes/ impact. √
- Provide clear indication about quality aspects √ that are
contributing to the achievement of goals/targets. √
- Modify interventions √ that may improve the efficient use of
resources. √
- Support management to acquire information needed√ to make
informed decision about processes. √
- Cost of production is reduced √ as deviations from set standards
can be corrected. √
- Strategies are revised √ in order to improve the quality of the
product and services/business image. √
- Allows for quality control checks √ and procedures at key points. √
- Key performance indicators are carefully selected to monitor√ and
evaluate the outcome. √
- Benchmarking is used to find best practices √ in order to
determine the competitive position of the business. √
- Quality circles meet on regular basis√ to evaluate the progress in
terms of quality. √
- Continuous research is conducted on latest developments√ to
ensure that TQM planning is up to date. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive
impact/advantages of monitoring and evaluation processes as a
TQM element on large businesses
AND/OR
Negatives/ Disadvantages
- Large businesses are often divided and the departments work in
silos, √ which makes it is difficult to get everyone to
communicate. √
- It often takes longer to detect problems √ or respond to
weaknesses. √
- It is not viable to check quality √ of all the products. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative
impact/disadvantages of monitoring and evaluation processes as
a TQM element on large businesses.
Sub-max. (8)
Max. (16)
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32 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2022)
6.4 Ways in which TQM can reduce the cost of quality
- Introduce quality circles to discuss ways of improving the quality of work/
workmanship. √√
- Schedule activities to eliminate duplication of tasks. √√
- Share responsibility for quality output amongst management and
workers. √√
- Train employees at all levels, so that everyone understands their roles in
quality management. √√
- Develop work systems that empower employees to find new ways of
improving quality. √√
- Work closely with suppliers to improve the quality of raw
materials/inputs. √√
- Improve communication about quality challenges/deviations, so that
everyone can learn from experience. √√
- Reduce investment on expensive, but ineffective inspection procedures
in the production process. √√
- Implement pro-active maintenance programmes for
equipment/machinery to reduce/eliminate breakdowns. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which TQM can reduce the
cost of quality.
Max. (10)
6.5 Conclusion
- The production function should produce goods and services according to
set standards and specifications. √√
- Quality management and quality performance is important to a business to
be sustainable. √√
- Continuous skills development and monitoring and evaluation of quality
processes enables businesses to produce quality products which will meet
the customer needs. √√
- The reduction in the cost of quality allows businesses to reduce prices of
products which will lead to an increase in profitability/market share. √√
- Any other relevant conclusion related to the quality indicators of production
function/quality management and quality performance/ impact of
continuous skills development/monitoring and evaluation of quality
processes/ways in which TQM can reduce the cost of quality.
(Any 1 x 2) (2)
[40]
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2022) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 33
QUESTION 6: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Quality indicators of the production
12
function
Difference between quality management
8
and quality performance
Impact of TQM elements on large
businesses: Max.
o Continuous skills 32
16
development/Education and training
o Monitoring and evaluation of quality
processes
Ways in which TQM can reduce the cost of
10
quality
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis, interpretation 2
8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
*LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 150
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