education
Department of
Education
FREE STATE PROVINCE
PREPARATORY EXAMINATION
GRADE 12
BUSINESS STUDIES P1
SEPTEMBER 2025
MARKS: 150
MARKING GUIDELINES
These marking guidelines consist of 28 pages.
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Business Studies Grade 12 Paper 1 Free State Mock 2025 Memo
Grade 12 Business Studies Paper 1 memorandum from the Free State Mock Exam 2025, 28 pages. Read online or get the free PDF download, question paper linked when available.
Business Studies · Grade 12 · Free State Mock Exam · 2025. Memorandum, 28 pages. Read online or download the PDF.
- Subject
- Business Studies
- Grade
- Grade 12
- Document type
- Memorandum
- Year
- 2025
- Exam period
- Free State Mock Exam
- Paper
- 1
- Curriculum
- CAPS
- Pages
- 28
- File size
- 7.7 MB
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FS/September 2025
NOTES TO MARKERS
PREAMBLE
The notes to markers are provided for quality assurance purposes to ensure the
following:
(a) Fairness, consistency and reliability in the standard of marking
(b) Facilitate the moderation of candidates’ scripts at the different levels
(c) Streamline the marking process considering the broad spectrum of markers
across the country
(d) Implement appropriate measures in the teaching, learning and assessment of
the subject at schools/institutions of learning
1. For marking and moderation purposes, the following colours are recommended:
Marker: Red
Senior Marker: Green
Deputy Chief Marker: Orange
Chief Marker: Pink
Internal Moderator: Black/Blue
DBE Moderator: Turquoise
2. Candidates' responses must be in full sentences for SECTIONS B and C.
However, this would depend on the nature of the question.
3. | Acomprehensive marking guideline has been provided, but this is by no means
exhaustive. Due consideration should be given to an answer that is correct but:
e Uses a different expression from that which appears in the marking
guideline
e Comes from another credible source
e Original
e Adifferent approach is used
NOTE: There is only ONE correct answer in SECTION A.
4. Take note of other responses provided by candidates that are relevant within
the context of a particular question and allocate marks accordingly. (In cases
where the answer is unclear or indicates some understanding, part marks
should be awarded, for example, one mark instead of the maximum of two
marks.)
5. | The word 'Submax' is used to facilitate the allocation of marks within a question
or sub-question.
6. | The purpose of circling marks (guided by 'max' in the breakdown of marks) on
the right-hand side is to ensure consistency and accuracy in the marking of
scripts as well as for calculation and moderation purposes.
7. Subtotals to questions must be written in the right-hand margin. Circle the
subtotals as indicated by the allocation of marks. This must be guided by 'max'
in the markina auidelines. Onlv the total for each auestion should appear in the
10.
11.
12.
FS/September 2025
In an indirect question, the theory as well as the response must be relevant and
related to the question.
Correct numbering of answers to questions or sub-questions is recommended
in SECTIONS A and B. However, if the numbering is incorrect, follow the
sequence of the candidate's responses. Candidates will be penalised if the latter
is not clear.
No additional credit must be given for repetition of facts. Indicate with an 'R'.
The differentiation between 'evaluate' and ‘critically evaluate’ can be explained
as follows:
11.1. When 'evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond in either a
positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and negative)
stance, e.g., Positive: 'CO/DA eliminates time and costs spenty on
lengthy civil court proceedings." \
11.2. When 'criticatly evaluaie’ is used, candidates are expected to respond in
either a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and
negative) stance. In this instance candidates are also expected to
support their responses with more depth, e.g., 'COIDA eliminates time
and costs spenty on lengthy civil court proceedingsV because the
employer will not be liable for compensation to the employee for injuries
sustained during working hours as long as it can be proved that the
business was not negligent.’ ¥
NOTE: 1. The above could apply to ‘analyse’ as well.
2. Note the placing of the tick (1) in the allocation of marks.
The allocation of marks must be informed by the nature of the question,
cognitive verb used, mark allocation in the marking guideline and the context of
each question.
Cognitive verbs, such as:
12.1 Advise, name, state, identify, quote, outline, motivate, recommend,
suggest, (list not exhaustive) do not usually require much depth in
candidates' responses. Therefore, the mark allocation for each
statement/answer appears at the end.
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13.
14.
Tee
FS/September 2025
Define, describe, explain, discuss, elaborate, distinguish, differentiate,
compare, tabulate, analyse, evaluate, critically evaluate (list not
exhaustive) require a greater depth of understanding, application and
reasoning. Therefore, the marks must be allocated more objectively to
ensure that assessment is conducted according to established norms so
that uniformity, consistency and fairness are achieved.
Mark only the FIRST answer where candidates offer more than one answer for
SECTION B and C questions that require one answer.
SECTION B
14.1
14.2
14.3
14.4
14.5
If for example, FIVE facts are required, mark the candidate's FIRST FIVE
responses and ignore the rest of the responses. Indicate by drawing a
line across the unmarked portion.
NOTE: This applies only to questions where the number of facts is
specified.
The above also applies to responses in SECTION C. (where applicable)
If two facts are written in one sentence, award the candidate FULL credit.
Point 14.1 above still applies.
If candidates are required to provide their own examples/views,
brainstorm this at the marking centre to finalise alternative answers and
consult with the Internal Moderator at DBE for approval.
Use of the cognitive verbs and allocation of marks:
14.4.1 If the number of facts is specified, questions that require
candidates to 'describe/discuss/explain' may be marked as
follows:
e Fact: 2 marks (or as indicated in the marking guidelines)
e Explanation: 1 mark (two marks will be allocated in
SECTION C)
The ‘fact' and ‘explanation’ are given separately in the marking
guideline to facilitate mark allocation.
14.4.2 If the number of facts required is not specified, the allocation of
marks must be informed by the nature of the question and the
maximum mark allocated in the marking guideline.
ONE mark may be awarded for answers that are easy to recall,
require one-word answers or are quoted directly from a
scenario/case study. This applies to SECTIONS B and C in
particular (where applicable).
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FS/September 2025
15. SECTION C
15.1. The breakdown of the mark allocation for the essays is as follows:
Introduction Maxi .
Content axa:
" 32
Conclusion
Insight 8
TOTAL 40
15.2 Insight consists of the following components:
Layout/Structure _| Is there an introduction, a body, and a conclusion? 2
Analysis and Is the candidate able to break down the question into | 2
interpretation headings/subheadings/interpret it correctly to show an
understanding of what is being asked?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
All headings addressed: 1 (One 'A’)
Interpretation (16 to 32 marks): 1 (One 'A’)
Synthesis Are there relevant decisions/facts/responses made based on | 2
the questions?
Option 1: Only relevant fact: 2marks (No "-S")
Where a candidate answers 50% or more (two
to four sub-questions) of the question with only
relevant facts, no '-S' appears in the left margin.
Award the maximum of TWO (2) marks for
synthesis.
Option 2: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One "-S")
Where a candidate answers less than 50%
(only one sub-question) of the question with
only OR some relevant facts, one '-S' appears
in the left margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1)
mark for synthesis.
Option 3: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One "-S")
Where a candidate answers FOUR sub-
questions, but one/two/three sub-questions
with no relevant facts, one "-S" appears in the
left margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1) mark
for synthesis.
Option 4: No relevant facts: 0 mark (Two "-S")
Where a candidate answers less than 50%
(only one sub-question) of the question with no
relevant facts, two '-S' appear in the left margin.
Award a ZERO mark for synthesis.
Originality ls there evidence of examples based on recent information, | 2
current trends and developments?
TOTAL FOR INSIGHT:| 8
TOTAL MARKS FOR FACTS: | 32|
TOTAL MARKS FOR ESSAY (8 + 32):| 40
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FS/September 2025
NOTE: 1. No marks will be awarded for content repeated from the
introduction and conclusion.
The candidate forfeits marks for layout if the words
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not stated.
No marks will be awarded for layout if the headings
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not supported by an
explanation.
15:3 Indicate insight in the left-hand margin with a symbol, e.g. ('L, A, -S
and/or O').
15.4 The breakdown of marks is indicated at the end of the suggested
answer/marking guideline for each question.
15.5 Mark all relevant facts until the SUBMAX/MAX mark in a subsection
has been attained. Write SUBMAX/MAX after maximum marks have
been obtained but continue reading for originality "O".
15.6 At the end of each essay, indicate the allocation of marks for facts
and marks for insight as follows: (L — Layout, A — Analysis, S —
Synthesis, O — Originality) as in the table below.
CONTENT MARKS
Facts 32 (max.)
L 2
A 2
Ss 2
(e) 2
TOTAL 40
15:7 When awarding marks for facts, take note of the submaxima
indicated, especially if candidates do not make use of the same
subheadings. Remember, headings and subheadings are
encouraged and contribute to insight (structuring/logical flow/
sequencing) and indicate clarity of thought. (See MARK
BREAKDOWN at the end of each question.)
15.8 If the candidate identifies/interprets the question INCORRECTLY,
then he/she may still obtain marks for layout.
15.9 If a different approach is used by candidates, ensure that the
answers are assessed according to the mark allocation/
subheadings as indicated in the marking guideline.
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FS/September 2025
15.10 15.10.1 Award TWO marks for complete sentences. Award ONE
mark for phrases, incomplete sentences and vague
answers.
15.10.2 With effect from November 2015, the TWO marks will not
necessarily appear at the end of each completed
sentence. The ticks (1) will be separated and indicated
next to each fact, e.g., ‘Product development is a growth
strategy Vv, where businesses aim to introduce new
products into existing markets.'V
This will be informed by the nature and context of the
question, as well as the cognitive verb used.
15.11 With effect from November 2017, the maximum of TWO (2) marks
for facts shown as headings in the marking guidelines, will not
necessarily apply to each question. This would also depend on the
nature of the question.
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FS/September 2025
SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1
44.4 Bw
1.1.2 Dvy
1.4.3 Cw
114 Dw
11.5 Av
(5x2) (40)
1.2
1.2.1. management VV
1.2.2 opportunity VV
1.2.3. management control ¥V
1.2.4 marketing VV
1.2.5 intranet VV
(5x2) (10)
4.3
1.3.1 Dv
1.3.2 Av
1.3.3 JvV
1.3.4 Fvv
1.3.5 Hv
(5x2) (40)
TOTAL SECTION A: 30
QUESTION 1 | MARKS
1.1 10
1.2 10
1.3 10
TOTAL 30
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FS/September 2025
SECTION B
Mark the FIRST TWO questions only.
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
2.1 Provisions of BCEA
Regulation of working time/Ordinary work hours/Overtime/Meal
intervals and rest periods/Sunday work/public holidays V
Leave/annual/sick/family responsibility/maternity/ paternity/
parental V
Particulars of employment and remuneration ¥
Termination of employment V
Prohibition of employment of children and forced labour V
Any other relevant answer related to the provisions of the BCEA.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only. (4x1) (4)
2.2 Advantages of intensive strategies
Increased market share reduces the business's vulnerability to the
actions of competitors. vv
Increase in sales/income and profitability. VV
Improved service delivery may improve business image. VV
Businesses may have more control over the prices of products/
services. VV
Gain loyal customers through effective promotion campaigns. vV
Decreased prices may influence customers to buy more/
products. vv
Regular sales to existing customers may increase. VV
Eliminate competitors and dominate market prices. VV
Enables the business to focus on markets/well-researched quality
products that satisfy the needs of customers. VV
Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of intensive
strategies. Max = (6)
2.3. PESTLE elements from the statements
2.3.1 Technological element VV
2.3.2 Environmental element VV
2.3.3. Economic element VV
(6)
2.4 Consumer rights from the scenario:
2.4.1 - KB allows clients to obtain reasons for credit being
refused. V¥
- KBensures their clients receive information in their
understandable language. V (2)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Only award marks for responses that are quoted from
the scenario.
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FS/September 2025
2.4.2 The impact of the National Credit Act (NCA):
Positives/Advantages
The whole credit process is transparent V as both
businesses and customers know their
responsibilities. ¥
Lower bad debts, V resulting in better cash flow. V
Protect businesses\ against non-paying consumers. V
Authorised credit providersv may attract more customers. V
Increases cash sales ¥ because businesses only grant
credit to qualifying customers/more customers are buying
in cash. ¥
Businesses do thorough credit checks V and receive up-to-
date documentation from the customer as proof that they
can afford repayment. V
Leads to more customers through credit sales \ as they
are now protected from abuse. V¥
Prevents reckless lending V and protects businesses
against bankrupicy. v
Credit Bureau information is made available to businesses
\ to check the creditworthiness of consumers before
granting credit. v
Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/
advantages of the NCA on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
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Businesses can no longerv carry out credit marketing. V
Businesses struggle to get credit, V such as bank loans/
overdrafts. V
Businesses that do not comply with the NCA V may face
legal action. V
Debt collection procedures are more complex V and
expensive. V
Fewer customers buy on credit, and it leads to loss of
sales V as it is more difficult to obtain credit. V
Increases the administration burden/paperwork, V which is
costly/time consuming. V
Businesses need to appoint additional staff V to deal with
the extra administration. V
Should the credit agreement be declared reckless, V
businesses can forfeit the outstanding debt and the goods.
Businesses that are official credit providers must submit V a
compliance report every year. V
Businesses must make sure that all attempts have been
made \ to recover the debt before backlisting the
customer. V
Credit providers cannot collect from consumers V who are
under credit review. V
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FS/September 2025
- More working capital is needed as businesses cannot sell
many goods on credit V due to stringent credit application
processes. V
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/
disadvantages of the NCA on businesses.
Max
2.5 Penalties for non-compliance with the COIDA
Businesses can be fined, for refusing to lodge the claim/
contravening the Act. V
Businesses can be forced to make large payments if they did not
take the necessary precautions according to the Act. V
They may be forced to pay any recovery costsV required by the
Compensation Fund. V
Employees may take businesses to court for not registering
themy with the commissioner of the Compensation Fund. V
If businesses are found guilty of any misconduct, \ they will have
to pay large penalties/face imprisonment. V
Any other retevani answer related to penalties for non-compliance
with COIDA.
Max
2.6 Funding of SETAs
Skills development levies are paid by employers to SARS Vas a
collecting agency for the government. V¥
Employers who have a salary bill that exceeds R500 000 per
annum Y should pay 1% of their annual salaries as a levy. V
The different SETAs receive 80% of the levy for organisational
erie V and the remaining 20% is paid to the National Skills
Fund.
Donations/Grants received from the public v/businesses/CSI
programmes V
Surplus funds received V from government institutions. V
Funds received \ from rendering their services. ¥
Any other relevant answer related to how SETAs are funded.
Max
27 Ways to comply with the Employment Equity Act/EEA
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Businesses must guard against discriminatory appointments. VV
Compile employment equity plans that indicate how they will
implement affirmative action. VV
Submit the employment equity plan to the Department of
Labour. VV
Assess the racial composition of all employees, including senior
management. VV
Clearly define the appointment process so that all parties are well
informed. VV
(6)
(4)
(6)
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FS/September 2025
- Use certified psychometric tests to assess applicants/employees
to ensure that suitable candidates are appointed. VV
- Implement affirmative action measures to redress disadvantages
experienced by designated groups. VV
- Prepare an empioyment equity plan in consultation with
employees. VV
- Implement an employment equity plan. VV
- Assign one or more senior managers to ensure implementation
and monitoring of the employment equity plan. VV
- Regularly report to the Department of Labour on progress in
implementing the plan. VV
- Conduct medical/psychological tests fairly for employees/when
deemed necessary. VV
- Display a summary of the Act where employees can clearly
see/have access to the document. VV
- Any other relevant answer related to how the business can
comply with the Employment Equity Act (EEA).
Max = (6)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 2 MARKS
2.1
2:2
2.3.1
2.3.2
2.3.3
2.4.1
2.4.2
2.5
2.6
2.7
TOTAL
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FS/September 2025
QUESTION 3: BUSINESS OPERATIONS
3.1. Aspects included in an employment contract
Personal details of the employee V
Details of the employer/business, such as the name and the
address V
Job title/Position V
Job description, such as duties/responsibilities and working
conditions V
Job specifications, such as formal qualifications/willingness to
travel V
Date of employment/Commencement of employment V
Ai atid the employee will spend most of his/her working
time
Hours of work, such as normal time and overtime V
Remuneration such as weekly or monthly pay V
Benefits/Fringe benefits/Perks/Allowances \V
Leave such as sick/maternity/annual/adoption leave V
Employee deductions such as compulsory/non-compulsory ¥
Duration/period of employment contract/Details of termination/
Expiry date of employment contract V
Probation period ¥
Signatures of both employer and employee V
Disciplinary policy such as rules/disciplinary procedure for
unacceptable behaviour V
Any other relevant answer related to aspects that should be
included in an employment contract
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only. (4x1) = (4)
3.2 Placement procedure
Businesses should outline the specific responsibilities of the new
position, including the expectations/skills required for this
position. Vv
Determine the successful candidate's strengths/weaknesses/
interests/skills by subjecting him/her to a range of psychometric
tests. VV
Determine the relationship between the position and the
competencies of the new candidate. VV
Any other relevant answer related to the placement procedure as
a human resource activity.
Max (4)
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3.3
3.4
FS/September 2025
JOB DESCRIPTION
JOB SPECIFICATION
1. Responsible for internal
auditing V
1. Bachelor's Degree in
Commerce V
2. Compiling monthly budgets
and financial reports V
2. Four years experience in
financial management V
Submax (2)
Submax (2)
NOTE: 1. The answer does not have to be in a tabular form.
2. Accept only quotes taken from the scenario, NOT the
description of job description and job specification.
Max
Outline the difference between quality management and quality
performance
Quality management
Quality performance
- Techniques/tools used to
design/improve the quality of
a product. vv
- Total performance of each
department measured against
the specified standards. VV
- Can be used for accountability
within each of the business
functions. vv
- Can be obtained if all
departments work together
towards the same quality
standard. VV
- Aims to ensure that the quality
of goods/services is
consistent /focuses on the
means to achieve consistency
- Quality is measured through
the physical product/statistical
output of processes/surveys
of the users and/or buyers of
goods/services. vv
- Any other relevant answer
related to quality
management.
- Any other relevant answer
related to quality of
performance.
Submax (2)
Submax (2)
NOTE: 1.
The answer does not have to be in a tabular format.
2. The difference does not have to link but must be clear.
3. Award a maximum of TWO (2) marks if the difference
is not clear/Mark either quality management or quality
performance only.
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Max
(4)
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FS/September 2025
3.5 Benefits of a good quality management system
Effective customer services are rendered, \ resulting in increased
customer satisfaction. ¥
Time and resources V are used efficiently. V
Productivity increases V through proper time management/using
high-quality resources. \
Products/services are constantly improved, V resulting in
increased levels of customer satisfaction. V
Vision/Mission/Business goals ¥ may be achieved. ¥
Business has a competitive advantage \ over its competitors. V
Regular training will continuously improve V the quality of
employees’ skills/knowledge. V
Employers and employees will have a healthy working
relationship \ resulting in happy/productive workers. ¥
Increased market share/more customers \ improve profitability. ¥
Improves business image V as there are fewer defects/returns V
Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of a good
quality management system.
Max = (6)
3.6
TQM ELEMENTS MOTIVATIONS
. Continuous improvement of Management ensures that they
. Total client/customer —_| They also regularly conduct
processes and systems vv stay abreast of the latest
technology to stay ahead of their
competitors. V
satisfaction VV market surveys to provide
customers with information on
the quality of their products. V
Submax (4) Submax (2)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO only.
2. The answer does not have to be in a tabular format.
3. Award marks for the TQM element even if the quotes
were incomplete.
4. Do not award marks for the motivations if the TQM
elements were incorrectly identified.
Max = (6)
3.7 Quality of performance of the administration function
Ensure fast and reliable data capturing V and processing
systems. V
Make reliable information available ¥ to management on time. V
Make relevant information available V for quick decision-making.
Handle complaints V quickly and effectively. V
Use modern technology’ efficiently. ¥
Implement effective risk management policies V to minimise
business losses. V
Quality assurance/Control/Evaluationy is recorded accurately. V
All documentation is kept neatly and orderly, in a safe place. V
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FS/September 2025
- Easy to recall/find V information/documentation. V
- All systems and processes \ are documented. V
- Any other relevant answer related to the Quality of performance
of the administration function.
Max (6)
3.8 The role of quality circles
- Solve problems related to quality and implement improvements. VV
- _ Investigate problems and suggest solutions to management. VV
- Ensure that there is no duplication of activities/tasks in the
workplace. VV
- Make suggestions for improving processes and systems in the
workplace. VV
- Improve the quality of products/services/productivity through
regular reviews of quality processes. VV
- Monitor/reinforce strategies to improve the smooth running of
business operations. VV
- Increase employees' morale and motivation. VV
- Quality circles discuss ways of improving the quality of work/
workmanship. VV
- Contribute towards the improvement and development of the
organisation. VV
- Figduce costs of redundancy and wasteful efforts in the long run.
- Increase the demand for products/services of the business. VV
- Create harmony and high performance in the workplace. VV
- Build a healthy workplace relationship between the employer and
employee vv
- Improve employees' loyalty and commitment to the organisational
goals. VV
- prove employees’ communication at all levels of the business.
- Develop a positive attitude/sense of involvement in the decision-
making processes of the services offered. VV
- Any other relevant answer related to the importance of quality
circles as part of continuous improvement of processes and
systems.
Max = (6)
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 3__| MARKS
3.1
3.2
3.3
3.4
3.5
3.6
3.7
3.8
TOTAL
Blololololalalals
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FS/September 2025
QUESTION 4: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT
4.1
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
EXTENT OF CONTROL
Micro environment V
Full control ¥
Market environment V
Partial control/limited/some V¥
Macro environment V¥
No control V
Submax (2) Submax (2)
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only
The answer does not have to be in a tabular format.
Award marks for the business environments even if
the extent of control is not indicated/correct.
4. The extent of control must be linked to the business
environments.
5. Accept responses in any order.
oN =
Max (4)
4.2 Rights of employees in terms of Labour Relations Act
- Employees may join a trade union of their choice. VV
- Embark on a legal strike as a remedy for grievances. VV
- Refer unresolved workplace disputes to the CCMA. VV
- Refer unresolved CCMA disputes to the Labour Court on
appeal. Vv
- Request trade union representatives to assist/represent
employees in the grievance/disciplinary hearings. VV
- Trade union representatives may take reasonable time off with pay
to attend to trade union duties. VV
- Any other relevant answer related to the rights of employees in
4.3
terms of Labour Relations Act.
Max
Distinguish between BEE and BBBEE
BEE
BBBEE
- Government policy ¥ but not
legally enforceable. \
- Is a government Act and
legally enforceable \ and
businesses must meet the
requirements. V
- Did not benefit all previously
disadvantaged persons \V but
benefited a few people in the
economy. V
- The aim is to benefit previously
disadvantaged persons
through economic progress. V
- Based on seven pillars V that
do not include all previously
disadvantaged people. V
- Based on five pillars V that
include all sectors of the world
- Any other relevant answer
related to BEE.
- Any other
relevant answer
related to BBBEE.
Submax (2)
Submax (2)
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FS/September 2025
NOTE: 1. The answers do not have to be in a tabular format.
2. The difference does not have to link but must be clear.
3. Award a maximum of TWO (2) marks if the difference is
not clear/Mark either BEE or BBBEE only.
Max (4)
44 BUSINESS STRATEGY MOTIVATION
1. Retrenchment VV The business has decided to
terminate the employees'
employment contracts for
operational reasons V
2. Liquidation VV ZS's financial difficulties
encouraged them to sell the entire
business to pay the liabilities V
Submax (4) Submax (2)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. The answers do not have to be in a tabular format.
3. Award marks for the business strategy even if the
quotes were incomplete.
4. Do not award marks for the motivations if the
business strategies were incorrectly identified.
Max (6)
BUSINESS OPERATIONS
4.5 Recruitment procedure
- The human resource manager should evaluate the job/prepare a
job analysis that includes the job specification/job description/in
order to identify recruitment needs. VV
- The human resource manager (HRM) should prepare the job
analysis that includes job description and job specification in order
to identify recruitment needs. VV
- HRM should indicate the job specification/description/key
performance areas to attract suitable candidates. VV
- Choose the method of recruitment: internal/externa! to reach/target
the suitable candidates/applicants. VV
- Vacancies can be internally advertised via internal email/word of
mouth/posters/staff notices. VV
- If external recruitment is chosen. the relevant recruitment sources
should be selected, e.g. recruitment agencies/tertiary institutions,
newspapers, etc. VV
- If internal recruitment is unsuccessful, external recruitment should
be considered. VV
- The advertisement should be prepared with the relevant
information, e.g. the name of the company, contact details, contact
person, etc. V
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- Place the advertisement in the appropriate media that will ensure
that the best candidates apply. VV
- Any other relevant answer related to the recruitment procedure
Max (4)
46 SALARY DETERMINATION
METHOD MOTIVATIONS
4. Piecemeal VV Themba is remunerated for the
tasks he has completed V
2. Time-related VV Sam is paid according to the time
he spends at work V
Submax (4) Submax (2)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. The answers do not have to be in a tabular format.
3. Award marks for the salary determination method
even if the quotes were incomplete.
4. Do not award marks for the motivations if the salary
determination methods were incorrectly identified.
Max = (6)
4.7 Impact of TQM if is poorly implemented
- Setting unrealistic deadlines V that may not be achieved. V
- Employees may not be adequately trained, V resulting in poor
quality products. ¥
- Decline in productivity V because of stoppages. V
- Businesses may not be able to make necessary changes to
products/services \ to satisfy the needs of customers. V
- Business reputation/image may suffer \ because of poor
quality/defective goods. V
- Customers will have many alternatives to choose from V and the
impact could be devastating to businesses. V
- Investors might withdraw investment V if there is a decline in
profits. V
- Decline in sales ¥ as more goods are returned by unhappy
customers. V
- High staff turnover V because of poor skills development. V¥
- Undocumented/Uncontrolled quality control systems/ processes. V
could result in errors/deviations from pre-set quality standards. V
- Any other relevant answer related to the impact of TQM if poorly
implemented.
Max (4)
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4.8 Ways in which TQM can reduce the cost of quality
- Introduce quaiity circles/to discuss ways of improving the quality
of their workmanship. v¥V
- Schedule activities to eliminate duplication of tasks/activities VV
- Share responsibility for quality output between management and
workers. V¥
- Develop work systems that empower employees to find new ways
of improving quality. vv
- Improve communication about the quality challenges/deviations
so that everyone can learn from past experiences. VV
- Reduce investment in expensive but ineffective inspection
procedures in the production process. VV
- Implement proactive maintenance programmes for equipment/
machinery to reduce/eliminate breakdowns. VV
- Train employees at all levels so that everyone understands their
roles in quality management. VV
- Work closely with suppliers to improve the quality of raw
materials/inputs. Vv
- Any other relevani answer related to the ways in which TQM can
reduce the cost of quality.
Max = (6)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION MARKS
41 4
4.2 6
4.3 4
44 6
4.5 4
4.6 6
4.7 4
4.8 6
TOTAL 40
TOTAL SECTION B: 80
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SECTION C
Mark the answers to the FIRST question only.
QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (BUSINESS STRATEGIES)
5.1 Introduction
- Strategic management process allows businesses to develop
turnaround strategies to enhance/improve their operations V¥
- A critical analysis of Porter's Five Forces model requires
businesses to conduct continuous research on the latest
developments in the market V
- The effective implementation of diversification strategies enables
businesses to gain a competitive advantage in the market V
- Strategy evaluation is the process of monitoring business activities
and performance results V
- Any other relevant introduction related to the strategic
management _ process/Porter's Five _ Forces/diversification
strategies/steps in strategy evaluation.
(2x1) (2)
5.2 Strategic management process
Option 1
- Have a _ clear vision/mission statement/measurable/realistic
objective in place. VV
- Identify opportunities/weaknesses/strengths/threats by conducting
environmental scanning/situation analysis. VV
- Tools available for environmental scanning may include a SWOT
analysis/Porter's Five Forces model/PESTLE analysis/industrial
tools. Vv
- Formulate alternative strategies to respond to challenges VV
- Develop (an) action plan(s) including the tasks to be done/deadlines
to be met/resources to be procured VV
- Implement selected strategies by communicating them to all
stakeholders/organising business resources/motivating staff VV
- Continuously evaluate/monitor/measure strategies in order to take
corrective action. VV
- Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management
process.
OR
Option 2
- Review/Analyse/Re-examine their vision/mission statement. VV
- Conduct an environmental analysis using models such as
PESTLE/Porter's Five Forces model/SWOT. VV
- Formulate a_ strategy such as a _ defensive/retrenchment
strategy. VV
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- Implement a strategy using a template such as an action
plan. VV
- Control/Evaluate/Monitor the implemented strategy to identify
gaps/deviations in implementation. VV
- Take corrective action to ensure goals/objectives are met. VV
- Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management
process.
NOTE: The steps may be in any order. Max (12)
5.3 THREE types of diversification strategies
Concentric diversification VV
- The business adds a new product or service that is related to
existing products V and which will appeal to the new customers. V
- Occurs when a business wants to increase its product range V and
markets. V
- Any other relevant answer related to concentric diversification as a
diversification strategy.
Strategy (2)
Discussion (2)
Submax (4)
Horizontal diversification VV
- The business adds new products or services that are unrelated to
existing products, ¥ which may appeal to existing customers. V
- Occurs when a business acquires or merges with a business \ that
is at the same production stage but may offer a different product. V
- Any other relevant answer related to the horizontal diversification.
Strategy (2)
Discussion (2)
Submax (4)
Conglomerate diversification VV
- The business adds new products or services that are unrelated to
existing products \ which may appeal to new groups of
customers.
- It means that a business grows V into new products/services and
markets. V
- Any other relevant answer related to the concentric diversification.
Strategy (2)
Discussion (2)
Submax (4)
Max (12)
NOTE: Mark the first THREE (3) only.
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5.4 Application of Porter's Five Forces
5.4.1 Power of suppliers
- Assess the power of the suppliers V in influencing prices V
- Suppliers that deliver high-quality products ¥ may have power over
businesses
- The smaller the number of suppliers, the more powerful they may
be \V as the choice of suppliers may be limited V
- Identify the kind of power suppliers have in terms of the quality of
products/services/reliability/ability V to make prompt deliveries V
- Any other relevant answer related to how businesses could apply
the power of suppliers to analyse their position in the market
environment.
Submax (6)
5.4.2. Threats of substitution/substitutes
- Business products that can be easily substituted ¥ weaken the
power of the business in the market. V
- Establish whether the sellers of substitute products have improved
their product ¥ /sell lower quality goods at lower prices. V
- Businesses selling unique products will not be threatened V by
substitute products. V
- Assess if customers are using substitute products/services V and
determine reasons for using substitutes. V
- Any other relevant answer related to the business could apply the
threat of substitution/substitution to analyse their position in the
market environment.
Submax (6)
Max (12)
5.5 Steps in strategy evaluation
- Examine the underlying basis of a business strategy. VV
- Look forward and backward into the implementation
process. VV
- Compare the expected performance with the actual
performance. VV
- Take corrective action so that deviations may be corrected. \V
- Set specific dates for control and follow-up. VV
- Decide on the desired outcome. VV
- Consider the impact of the strategic implementation in the internal
and external environments of the business. VV
- Any other relevant answer related to the steps in strategy
evaluation.
NOTE: Accept steps in any order. Max (10)
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5.6 Conclusion
- Businesses should always assess their strategic management
process to be able to respond effectively to new trends in the
market. VW
- The financial sustainability of businesses is significantly improved
through the correct application of diversification strategies. VV
: The effective implementation of diversification strategies may
result in financial stability and future business prospects. VV
- The correct application of Porter's Five Forces model allows
businesses to develop relevant business strategies that may yield
fruitful results. VV
- Strategy evaluation enables businesses to deal with challenges in
implementing new strategies. VV
- Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management
process, types of diversification strategies application of Porter's
Five Forces model and the steps in strategy evaluation.
(2x1) (2)
[40]
QUESTION 5: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM _| TOTAL
Introduction 2
Strategic management process 12
The types of diversification strategies 12 Max
Application of Porter's Five Forces 12 32
The steps in the strategy evaluation 10
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis Z 8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
LASO - For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
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QUESTION 6: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (HUMAM RESOURCES FUNCTION)
6.1 Introduction
- Selection refers to choosing the best candidate with the necessary
skills and abilities to execute given tasks successfully. V
- Interview needs to be planned as it is an arranged meeting with a
job applicant to evaluate their suitability for the job. V
- Induction is an orientation process for new employees in the
workplace. V¥
- A proper induction process enables new employees to have a
better understanding of businesses' standard operating
procedures. V
- Any other relevant introduction related to the selection
procedure/impact of the fringe benefits on businesses/the purpose
of the interview/benefits of induction.
Any (2x1) = (2)
6.2 Selection procedure
Option 1
- Determine fair assessment criteria on which selection will be
based. VV
- Applicants must submit the application forms/Curriculum Vitae and
certian copies of personai documents/IDs/proof of qualifications,
etc.
- Sort the received documents/CVs according to _ the
assessment/selection criteria. VV
- Screen/Determine which applications meet the minimum job
requirementsy and separate these from the rest. VV
- Preliminary interviews are conducted if many suitable applications
are received. VV
- Reference checks should be made to verify the content of CVs,
e.g. contact previous employers to check work experience. VV
- Compile a shortlist of potential candidates identified. VV
- Test candidates who have applied for senior positions. Vv
- — Invite shortlisted candidates for an interview. VV
- Awritten offer is made to the selected candidate VV
- Inform unsuccessful applicants’ about the outcome of their
\Vapplication/Some adverts indicate the deadline for informing only
successful candidates. VV
- Any other relevant answer related to the steps that should be
followed in the selection procedure.
OR
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Option 2
- Receive documentation, e.g., application forms and sort it
according to the criteria of the job. VV
- Evaluate CVs and create a shortlist/Screen of the applicants VV
- Check information in the CVs and contact references VV
- Conduct preliminary sifting interviews to identify applicants who
are not suitable for the job, although they meet all
tequirements. VV
- Assess/Test candidates who have applied for senior positions/to
ensure the best candidate is chosen. VV
- Conduct interviews with shortlisted candidates. VV
- Offer employment in writing to the selected candidates. VV
- Any other relevant answer related to the steps that should be
followed in the selection procedure.
Max (12)
6.3 The purpose of an interview
- Todetermine a candidate's suitability V for the job. V
- Obtains information about the strengths and weaknesses V of
each candidate. V
- Evaluate the skills and personal characteristics \ of the
applicant. v'
- Matches information provided by the applicant ¥ to the job
requirements. ¥
- Creates an opportunity where information about the business V¥
and applicant can be exchanged. V¥
- Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of an interview.
Max (10)
6.4 The impact of fringe benefits
Positives/Advantages
- Improves productivity, V resulting in higher profitability. V
- Attractive fringe benefit packages V may result in higher employee
retention/reduce employee retention. ¥
- Attract qualified/skilled/experienced employees \ who may
positively contribute towards the business goals/objectives. V
- It increases employee satisfaction/loyalty V as they may be willing
to go the extra mile. V
: Businesses save money \ as benefits are tax-deductible \
= Fringe benefits can be used as leverage \V for salary
negotiations. V
- Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of fringe
benefits for the business.
AND/OR
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Negatives/Disadvantages
- Businesses who cannot offer fringe benefits fail) to attract
skilled workers. V
- |tcan create conflict/lead to corruption ‘ if allocated unfairly. ¥
- Fringe benefits are additional costs V that may result in cashflow
problems. V
- Errors/Mistakes in benefit plans ¥ may lead to costly lawsuits/
regulatory fines V
- Decreases business profits V, as incentive/package/remuneration
costs are higher. V
- Businesses who offer employees different benefit plans may create
resentment \ to those who receive less benefit resulting in lower
productivity. V
- Administrative costs increase V as benefits need to be correctly
recorded for tax purposes. V
- Workers only stay with the business for fringe benefits ¥ and may
not be committed/loyal to the tasks/business. V
- Businesses must pay advisors/attorneys V to help them create
benefit plans that comply with the law. ¥
- Any other relevant answer related to the disadvantages of fringe
benefits for the business.
Max (12)
6.5 The benefits of induction
- Allows new employees to settle in quickly and work
effectively. VV
- Ensures that new employees understand the rules and restrictions
of the business. VV
- New employees may establish relationships with fellow employees
at different. Vv
- Make new employees feel at ease in the workplace, which reduces
anxiety/insecurity/fea.r VV
- The results obtained during the induction process provide a base
for focused training. VV
- Increases quality of performance and productivity. vV
- Minimises the need for ongoing training and development. VV
- Employees will be familiar with organisational structures, e.g., who
their supervisors/low-level managers are. VV
- Opportunities are created for new employees to experience/
explore different departments. VV
- New employees will understand their roles/responsibilities
concerning safety regulations and rules. VV
- New employees will know the layout of the building/factory/ offices
where everything is, which saves production time. VV
- Company policies are communicated regarding conduct and
procedures/safety and security/employment contract/conditions of
employment/working hours/leave. VV
- Realistic expectations for new employees as well as the business
are created VV
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- New employees may feel part of the team, resulting in positive
morale and motivation. VV
- Reduces staff turnover as new employees have been inducted
properly. VV
- Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of the induction for
businesses.
Max (12)
6.6 Conclusion
- The selection procedure serves as a guideline on how to eliminate
unsuitable candidates and appoint competent candidates for
available posts. VV
- Fringe benefits enable businesses to maintain sustainability and
enhance their reputations. VV
- The interview is designed to establish the attributes of the applicant
that are relevant to the job. vV
- Businesses should be well conversant with the induction
programme to ensure a purposeful/meaningful induction for new
employees. vv
- Any other relevant conclusion related to the selection procedure/
impact of the fringe benefits on businesses/the purpose of the
interview/benefits of induction.
Any (1x2) = (2)
QUESTION 6: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Selection procedure 12
The purpose of an interview 10 Max
Impact of fringe benefits 12 32
The benefit of induction 12
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis/Interpretation 2 8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
LASO - For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
TOTAL SECTIONC: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 150
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