NATIONAL
SENIOR CERTIFICATE
SENIOR SERTIFIKAAT
GRADE 12
SEPTEMBER 2025
BUSINESS STUDIES P1
MARKING GUIDELINE
MARKS: 150
This marking guideline consists of 30 pages.
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Business Studies Grade 12 Paper 1 Eastern Cape Mock 2025 Memo
Grade 12 Business Studies Paper 1 memorandum from the Eastern Cape Mock Exam 2025, 30 pages. Read online or get the free PDF download, question paper linked when available.
Business Studies · Grade 12 · Eastern Cape Mock Exam · 2025. Memorandum, 30 pages. Read online or download the PDF.
- Subject
- Business Studies
- Grade
- Grade 12
- Document type
- Memorandum
- Year
- 2025
- Exam period
- Eastern Cape Mock Exam
- Paper
- 1
- Curriculum
- CAPS
- Pages
- 30
- File size
- 1.5 MB
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2 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
NOTES TO MARKERS
1. PREAMBLE
The notes to markers are provided for quality assurance purposes to ensure
the following:
(a) Fairness, consistency and reliability in the standard of marking
(b) Facilitate the moderation of candidates' scripts at the different levels
(c) Streamline the marking process considering the broad spectrum of
markers across the country
(d) Implement appropriate measures in the teaching, learning and
assessment of the subject at schools/institutions of learning
2. Candidates’ responses must be in full sentences for SECTIONS B and C.
However, this would depend on the nature of the question.
3. A comprehensive marking guideline has been provided but this is by no means
exhaustive. Due consideration should be given to an answer that is correct but:
• Uses a different expression from that which appears in the marking
guideline
• Comes from another credible source
• Original
• A different approach is used
NOTE: There is only ONE correct answer in SECTION A.
4. Take note of other relevant answers provided by candidates and allocate marks
accordingly. (In cases where the answer is unclear or indicates some
understanding, part-marks should be awarded, for example, one mark instead
of the maximum of two marks.)
5. The word ‘Sub-max.’ is used to facilitate the allocation of marks within a question
or sub-question.
6. The purpose of circling marks (guided by ‘max’ in the breakdown of marks) on
the right-hand side is to ensure consistency and accuracy in the marking of
scripts as well as for calculation and moderation purposes.
7. Subtotals to questions must be written in the right-hand margin. Circle the
subtotals as indicated by the allocation of marks. This must be guided by ‘max’
in the marking guidelines. Only the total for each question should appear in the
left-hand margin next to the appropriate question number.
8. In an indirect question, the theory as well as the response must be relevant and
related to the question.
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 3
9. Correct numbering of answers to questions or sub questions is recommended
in SECTIONS A and B. However, if the numbering is incorrect, follow the
sequence of the candidate’s responses. Candidates will be penalised if the
latter is not clear.
10. No additional credit must be given for repetition of facts. Indicate with an ‘R’.
11. The differentiation between ‘evaluate’ and ‘critically evaluate’ can be explained
as follows:
11.1 When ‘evaluate’ is used, candidates are expected to respond in either a
positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and negative)
stance, e.g. Positive: ‘COIDA eliminates time and costs spent √ on
lengthy civil court proceedings.’ √
11.2 When ‘critically evaluate’ is used, candidates are expected to respond in
either a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and
negative) stance. In this instance candidates are also expected to
support their responses with more depth, e.g. ‘COIDA eliminates time
and costs spent √ on lengthy civil court proceedings, √ because the
employer will not be liable for compensation to the employee for injuries
sustained during working hours as long as it can be proved that the
business was not negligent.’ √
NOTE: 1. The above could apply to ‘analyse’ as well.
2. Note the placing of the tick (√) in the allocation of marks.
12. The allocation of marks must be informed by the nature of the question,
cognitive verb used, mark allocation in the marking guideline and the context of
each question.
Cognitive verbs, such as:
12.1 Advise, name, state, outline, motivate, recommend, suggest, (list not
exhaustive) do not usually require much depth in candidates’ responses.
Therefore, the mark allocation for each statement/answer appears at the
end.
12.2 Define, describe, explain, discuss, elaborate, distinguish, differentiate,
compare, tabulate, analyse, evaluate, critically evaluate (list not
exhaustive) require a greater depth of understanding, application and
reasoning. Therefore, the marks must be allocated more objectively to
ensure that assessing is conducted according to established norms so
that uniformity, consistency and fairness are achieved.
13. Mark only the FIRST answer where candidates offer more than one answer for
SECTION B and C questions that require one answer.
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4 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
14. SECTION B
14.1 If for example, FIVE facts are required, mark the candidate's FIRST
FIVE responses and ignore the rest of the responses. Indicate by
drawing a line across the unmarked portion.
NOTE: 1. This applies only to questions where the number of facts
is specified.
2. The above also applies to responses in SECTION C
(where applicable)
14.2 If two facts are written in one sentence, award the candidate FULL
credit. Point 14.1 above still applies.
14.3 If candidates are required to provide their own examples/views,
brainstorm this to finalise alternative answers.
14.4 Use of the cognitive verbs and allocation of marks:
14.4.1 If the number of facts are specified, questions that require
candidates to 'describe/discuss/explain' may be marked as
follows:
• Fact 2 marks (or as indicated in the
marking guideline)
• Explanation 1 mark (two marks will be allocated in
SECTION C)
The ‘fact’ and ‘explanation’ are given separately in the
marking guideline to facilitate mark allocation.
14.4.2 If the number of facts required is not specified, the allocation
of marks must be informed by the nature of the question and
the maximum mark allocated in the marking guideline.
14.5 ONE mark may be awarded for answers that are easy to recall,
requires one-word answers or is quoted directly from a
scenario/case study. This applies to SECTIONS B and C in
particular (where applicable).
15. SECTION C
15.1 The breakdown of the mark allocation for the essays is as follows:
Introduction
Maximum:
Content
32
Conclusion
Insight 8
TOTAL 40
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 5
15.2 Insight consists of the following components:
Layout/Structure Is there an introduction, paragraphs and a conclusion? 2
Analysis and Is the candidate able to break down the question into 2
interpretation headings/subheadings/interpret it correctly to show
understanding of what is being asked?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
All headings addressed: 1 (One ‘A’)
Interpretation (16 to 32 marks): 1 (One ‘A’)
Synthesis Are there relevant decisions/facts/responses made based 2
on the questions?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
Option 1: Only relevant facts: 2 marks (No ‘-S’)
Where a candidate answers 50% or more (two
to four sub-questions) of the question with only
relevant facts; no '-S' appears in the left
margin. Award the maximum of TWO (2) marks
for synthesis.
Option 2: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One ‘-S’)
Where a candidate answers less than 50%
(only one sub-question) of the question with
only/some relevant facts; one '-S' appears in the
left margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1) mark
for synthesis.
Option 3: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One ‘-S’)
Where a candidate writes FOUR questions, but
one/two/three sub-question of the question with
no relevant facts; one ‘-S’ appears in the left
margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1) mark for
synthesis.
Option 4: No relevant facts: 0 marks (Two ‘-S’)
Where a candidate answers less than 50%
(only one sub-question) of the question with no
relevant facts; two ‘-S’ appear in the left margin.
Award a ZERO mark for synthesis.
Originality Is there evidence of one or two examples, not older than two 2
(2) years that are based on recent information, current
trends and developments?
TOTAL FOR INSIGHT: 8
TOTAL MARKS FOR FACTS: 32
TOTAL MARKS FOR ESSAY (8 + 32): 40
NOTE: 1. No marks will be awarded for contents repeated from the
introduction and conclusion.
2. The candidate forfeits marks for layout if the words
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not stated.
3. No marks will be awarded for layout, if the headings
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not supported by an
explanation.
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6 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
15.3 Indicate insight in the left-hand margin with a symbol e.g. (‘L, A, -S and/or O’).
15.4 The breakdown of marks is indicated at the end of the suggested answer/
marking guideline to each question.
15.5 Mark all relevant facts until the SUB MAX/MAX mark in a subsection has been
attained. Write SUB MAX/MAX after maximum marks have been obtained but
continue reading for originality “O”.
15.6 At the end of each essay indicate the allocation of marks for facts and marks
for insight as follows: (L – Layout, A – Analysis, S – Synthesis, O – Originality)
as in the table below.
CONTENT MARKS
Facts 32 (max.)
L 2
A 2
S 2
O 2
TOTAL 40
15.7 When awarding marks for facts, take note of the sub-maxima indicated,
especially if candidates do not make use of the same subheadings.
Remember, headings and subheadings are encouraged and contribute to
insight (structuring/logical flow/sequencing) and indicate clarity of thought.
(See MARK BREAKDOWN at the end of each question.)
15.8 If the candidate identifies/interprets the question INCORRECTLY, then
he/she may still obtain marks for layout.
15.9 If a different approach is used by candidates, ensure that the answers are
assessed according to the mark allocation/subheadings as indicated in the
marking guideline.
15.10 15.10.1 Award TWO marks for complete sentences. Award ONE mark for
phrases, incomplete sentences and vague answers.
15.10.2 With effect from November 2015, the TWO marks will not
necessarily appear at the end of each completed sentence. The
ticks (√) will be separated and indicated next to each fact, e.g.
‘Product development is a growth strategy, √ where businesses
aim to introduce new products into existing markets.’ √
This will be informed by the nature and context of the question, as
well as the cognitive verb used.
15.11 With effect from November 2017, the maximum of TWO (2) marks for facts
shown as headings in the marking guidelines, will not necessarily apply to
each question. This would also depend on the nature of the question.
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 7
SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1 1.1.1 B √√
1.1.2 C √√
1.1.3 D √√
1.1.4 C √√
1.1.5 B √√ (5 x 2) (10)
1.2 1.2.1 learnership √√
1.2.2 secondary √√
1.2.3 internal √√
1.2.4 management system √√
1.2.5 administration √√ (5 x 2) (10)
1.3 1.3.1 I √√
1.3.2 E √√
1.3.3 H √√
1.3.4 F √√
1.3.5 C √√ (5 x 2) (10)
TOTAL SECTION A: 30
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 1 MARKS
1.1 10
1.2 10
1.3 10
TOTAL 30
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8 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
SECTION B
Mark the FIRST TWO answers only.
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
2.1 TWO provisions of leave
- Sick leave √
- Annual leave √
- Family responsibility leave √
- Maternity leave √
- Parental leave/Adoption leave √
- Paternity leave √
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 1) (2)
2.2 Funding of SETAs
- Skills Development levies are paid by employers to SARS as a collecting
agency for the government. √√
- Employers who have a salary bill that exceeds R500 000 per annum,
should pay one percent (1%) of their annual salaries as a levy. √√
- The different SETAs receive eighty percent (80%) of the levy for
organisational expenses and the remaining twenty percent (20%) is paid to
the National Skills Fund. √√
- Donations/grants received from the public/businesses/CSI programmes. √√
- Surplus funds received from government institutions. √√
- Funds received from rendering their services. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to how SETAs are funded.
Max. (6)
2.3 PESTLE FACTOR
2.3.1 PESTLE factor from the scenario
Social √√ (2)
2.3.2 Ways in which businesses can deal with the challenges posed
by the social factors
- Sell substitute/generic products at lower prices due to low levels. √√
- Learn local languages/Hire employees who are well conversant
with the local language. √√
- Businesses must be well conversant with the demands of their
customers. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which businesses can
deal with the challenges posed by social as a PESTLE factor.
NOTE: Accept relevant facts even if the PESTLE factor was
incorrectly identified as an answer in QUESTION 2.3.1.
Max (4)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 9
2.4 Rights of employers in terms of the Labour Relations Act (LRA), 1995 (Act
66 of 1995)
- Form employer organisations √ to represent them in labour related
matters. √
- Form bargaining councils √ for collective bargaining purposes. √
- Lockout employees √ who engage in labour action/unprotected/illegal
strike. √
- Dismiss employees √ who engage in an unprotected/illegal strike/
misconduct such as intimidation/violence during a strike action. √
- To not pay/remunerate an employee who has participated in a protected
strike √ for services/work they did not do during the strike. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the rights of employers in terms of the
LRA.
Max. (4)
2.5 Types of defensive strategies
2.5.1 Divestiture √√
- Disposing/Selling some assets/divisions that are no longer
profitable/productive. √
- Selling off divisions/product lines with slow growth potential. √
- Decreasing the number of shareholders by selling ownership. √
- Paying off debts by selling unproductive assets. √
- Withdrawing/Divesting their investment share in another business. √
- Any other relevant answer related to divestiture as a type of
defensive strategy.
Strategy (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
2.5.2 Retrenchment √√
- Terminating employment contracts/Letting go of employees for
operational/structural/restructuring reasons/reduce costs/
expenses. √
- Decreasing the number of product lines/closing certain departments
may result in some workers becoming redundant. √
- Any other relevant answer related to retrenchment as a type of
defensive strategy.
Strategy (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
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10 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
2.5.3 Liquidation √√
- Selling all assets/Bringing the business activities to an end due to the
inability to repay creditors/bankruptcy/lack of capital. √
- Selling the entire business in order to pay shareholders a fair price
for their shares. √
- Allowing creditors to apply for forced liquidation in order to have their
claims settled. √
- Companies in financial distress/difficulty may appeal for business
rescue to avoid liquidation. √
- Any other relevant answer related to liquidation as a type of defensive
strategy.
Strategy (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
Max. (6)
2.6 Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases Amendment Act
(COIDA)
2.6.1 Compliance with COIDA from scenario
- Peter Printers’ employees are registered with the Compensation
Fund. √
- PP also ensures that the machinery is in good working condition. √
(2 x 1) (2)
2.6.2 Negative impact of COIDA on businesses
- Claiming procedures √ can be time consuming. √
- Procedures required by this Act may be costly √ as paperwork places
an extra administrative burden on businesses. √
- Employers have to register all their workers √ and make annual
contributions to COIDA, which may result in cash flow problems. √
- Employers may be forced to pay heavy penalties √ if they are found
guilty of negligence/not enforcing safety measures. √
- Implementation processes/procedures required by the Act √ may be
expensive. √
- Military workers/Workers who are temporarily/permanently
employed in foreign countries √ are not covered. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact of COIDA
on businesses.
Max. (4)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 11
2.7 Purpose of the National Credit Act (NCA)
- To promote and advance the social and financial welfare √ of all South
Africans. √
- To promote responsible credit granting √ and prohibit reckless credit
granting. √
- To establish the National Credit Regulator √ and National Credit
Tribunal. √
- Promotes a fair √ credit-market. √
- Ensures that credit bureaux/credit providers are registered √ to avoid
consumer exploitation. √
- Ensure that consumers know √ what is included in their credit contracts. √
- Prevent discrimination √ and ensure credit is available to all consumers. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of the NCA.
Max. (6)
2.8 Ways to comply with the BCEA
- Workers should only work 9 hours per day in a 5 day work week./8 hours per
day in a 6 day work week./Overtime should not exceed 10 hours per
week. √√
- Workers can take up to six weeks paid sick leave during a 36-month
cycle. √√
- Workers must receive double payment if they work during public holidays/
Sunday. √√
- They must have a break of 60 minutes after five hours of work. √√
- Businesses should not employ children under the age of 16. √√
- Ensure the employment contracts do not contravene any aspect of the
requirements of the BCEA. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the ways to comply with the BCEA.
Max. (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 2 MARKS
2.1 2
2.2 6
2.3.1 2
2.3.2 4
2.4 4
2.5 6
2.6.1 2
2.6.2 4
2.7 6
2.8 4
TOTAL 40
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12 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
QUESTION 3: BUSINESS OPERATIONS
3.1 THREE aspects of an induction programme
- Safety regulations and rules. √
- Overview of the business. √
- Information about the business products/services. √
- Meeting with senior management who will explain the company's
vision/values/job descriptions/daily tasks. √
- Tour of the premises. √
- Introduction to key people and close colleagues. √
- Conditions of employment, e.g. working hours/leave application process/
disciplinary procedures, √ etc.
- Administration details on systems/processes/logistics. √
- Discussion of the employment contract and conditions of service. √
- Discussion on personnel policies, e.g. making private phone calls/using the
internet, √ etc.
- Discussion on employee benefits. √
- Corporate social responsibility programmes. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the aspects that should be included in
an induction programme.
NOTE: Mark the first THREE (3) only. (3 x 1) (3)
3.2 Role of the interviewee during the interview
- Greet the interviewer by name with a solid handshake and friendly smile. √√
- Listen carefully to the questions before responding. √√
- Make eye contact and have good body language. √√
- Show confidence and have a positive attitude. √√
- Show respect and treat the interview with its due importance. √√
- Be inquisitive and show interest in the business. √√
- Ask clarity seeking questions about the job/position offered. √√
- Be honest about your mistakes and explain how you dealt with it. √√
- Know your strengths and weaknesses and be prepared to discuss it. √√
- Thank the interviewer for the opportunity given to be part of the interview. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the role of the interviewee during the
interview.
Max. (6)
3.3 Type of salary determination method from the scenario
3.3.1 - Time related √√
- Motivation: SuperSave employees are paid for the time they
spend at work. √
NOTE: Do not award marks for motivation if the salary
determination methods were incorrectly identified.
Identification (2)
Motivation (1) (3)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 13
3.3.2 Impact of fringe benefits on businesses
Advantages/Positives
- Attractive fringe benefit packages √ may result in higher employee
retention/reduces employee turnover. √
- Attracts qualified/skilled/experienced employees √ who may
positively contribute towards the business goals/objectives. √
- Improves productivity √ resulting in higher profitability. √
- It increases employee satisfaction/loyalty √ as they may be willing
to go the extra mile. √
- Businesses save money √ as benefits are tax deductible. √
- Fringe benefits can be used as leverage √ for salary negotiations. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive
impact/advantages of fringe benefits on businesses.
AND/OR
Disadvantages/Negatives
- Businesses which cannot offer fringe benefits√ fails to attract
skilled workers. √
- Businesses which offer employees different benefit plans√ may
create resentment√/Employees who receive less benefit may not
be motivated√ resulting in lower productivity. √
- It can create conflict/lead to corruption√ if allocated unfairly. √
- Fringe benefits are additional costs√ that may result in cash flow
problems. √
- Decreases business profits, √ as incentive/package/remuneration
costs are higher. √
- Administrative costs increase√ as benefits need to be correctly
recorded for tax purposes. √
- Workers only stay with the business for fringe benefits, √ and
may not be committed/loyal to the tasks/business. √
- Businesses have to pay advisors/attorneys√ to help them create
benefit plans that comply with legislation. √
- Errors in benefit plans√ may lead to costly lawsuits/regulatory
fines. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative
impact/disadvantages of fringe benefits on businesses.
Max. (4)
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14 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
3.4 Implications of the Employment Equity Act on the human resource
function
- Offer equal pay √ for work of equal value. √
- Compile employment equity plans √ that indicate how they will implement
affirmative action. √
- Ensures that affirmative action promotes √ diversity in the workplace. √
- The human resources manager must treat employees fairly √ and
promote/provide equal opportunities in the workplace. √
- Retrain/Develop/Train designated groups √ through skills development
programmes. √
- Define the appointment process clearly √ to ensure all parties are well
informed. √
- Display a summary of the Act √ where employees can clearly see it/have
access to it. √
- Assign a manager to ensure that the employment equity plan √ will be
implemented/regularly monitored. √
- Report to the Department of Labour on the progress √ in the implementation
of the equity plan. √
- Conduct medical/psychological tests fairly √ to employees/when deemed
necessary. √
- Ensures that the workplace represents the demographics √ of the country at
all levels. √
- Restructure/Analyse current employment policies/practices/procedures √ to
accommodate designated groups. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the implication of the Employment
Equity Act/EEA on the human resources function.
Max. (4)
3.5 The meaning of Total Quality Management (TQM)
- TQM is an integrated system/methodology applied throughout the
organisation, √ which helps to design/produce/provide quality
products/services to customers. √
- It is a thought revolution in management, √ where the entire business is
operated with customer orientation in all business activities. √
- TQM enables businesses to continuously improve on the delivery of
products/ services √ in order to satisfy the needs of customers. √
- Management ensures that each employee is responsible √ for the quality of
his/her work/actions. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the meaning of Total Quality
Management (TQM).
Max. (4)
3.6 Quality concepts
3.6.1 Quality concept from the scenario
Quality assurance √√ (1 x 2) (2)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 15
3.6.2 Impact of TQM if poorly implemented by businesses
- Setting unrealistic deadlines √ that may not be achieved. √
- Employees may not be adequately trained √ resulting in poor quality
products. √
- Decline in productivity √ because of stoppages. √
- Businesses may not be able to make the necessary changes to
products/services √ in order to satisfy the needs of customers. √
- The reputation/image of the business may suffer √ because of poor
quality/defective goods. √
- Customers will have many alternatives to choose from √ and the
impact could be devastating to businesses. √
- Investors might withdraw investments, √ if there is a decline in
profits. √
- Decline in sales √ as more goods are returned by unhappy
customers. √
- High staff turnover √ because of poor skills development. √
- Undocumented/Uncontrolled quality control processes/systems
could result in errors/deviations √ from pre-set quality standards. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the impact of TQM if poorly
implemented by businesses.
Max. (4)
3.7 TWO steps in the PDCA-cycle.
Plan √√
- Businesses should identify the problem and develop a plan for improvement
to processes and systems. √
- Answer questions such as ‘what to do’ and ‘how to do it’. √
- Plan the new method and approach to improve the quality of their
products. √
- The plan must be logical for implementers to understand it. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the plan as a step in the PDCA-cycle.
Heading (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
Do √√
- Businesses should implement the change on a small scale. √
- Implement the processes and systems as planned. √
- During this step the implementers aim to effectively execute the change
based on the plan. √
- This step is essential in determining whether the change has potential. √
- Any other relevant answer related to do as a step in the PDCA-cycle.
Heading (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
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16 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
Check/Analyse √√
- Use data to analyse the results of change. √
- Determine whether it made a difference and what needs to be improved. √
- Check whether the processes are working effectively. √
- Businesses should assess, plan and establish if it is working/if things are
going according to plan. √
- Any other relevant answer related to check/analyse as a step in the PDCA-
cycle.
Heading (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
Act √√
- Institutionalise the improvement to meet the needs of the business. √
- Devise strategies on how to continually improve operational procedures. √
- If the change was successful, implement it on a wider scale. √
- The business should continuously revise the process to identify and
improve on shortcomings/until they get it right. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the act as a step in the PDCA-cycle.
Heading (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
NOTE: Only mark the first TWO (2) steps.
Max. (6)
3.8 Quality indicators of the marketing function
- Using aggressive advertising campaigns to sustain/increase the market
share. √√
- Win customers by satisfying their needs/wants/building positive
relationships. √√
- Adhere to ethical advertising practices when promoting products/
services. √√
- Identify competitive advantage to focus/improve on marketing
strengths. √√
- Differentiate products in order to attract more customers. √√
- Communicate effectively with customers to get feedback about their
experiences of the products sold/services rendered. √√
- Co-ordinate distribution with the production and advertising strategies. √√
- Use pricing techniques to ensure a competitive advantage. √√
- Determining gaps between customer expectations and actual experiences,
so that problems/unhappiness may be diagnosed and addressed. √√
- Making adjustments and changes to products/services based on feedback
from customers/results of market research. √√
- Constantly reviewing value issues. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the quality indicators of the marketing
function.
Max. (4)
[40]
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 17
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 3 MARKS
3.1 3
3.2 6
3.3.1 3
3.3.2 4
3.4 4
3.5 4
3.6.1 2
3.6.2 4
3.7 6
3.8 4
TOTAL 40
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18 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
QUESTION 4: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
4.1 Consumer rights as stipulated in the Consumer Protection Act/CPA
- Right to choose √
- Right to privacy √
- Right to fair and honest dealings √
- Right to disclosure and information √
- Right to fair and responsible marketing √
- Right to fair value/good quality and safety √
- Right to accountability by suppliers √
- Right to fair/just and reasonable terms and conditions √
- Right to equality in the consumer market √ (4 x 1) (4)
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only.
4.2 Advantages of diversification strategies
- Increase sales/revenue/income and business growth. √√
- Improves the business brand/image/brand awareness of the business. √√
- Reduces the risk of relying only on one product for sales/revenue /
income. √√
- Businesses gain more technological capabilities through product
modification. √√
- Sustained profitability from different product lines during times of fluctuating
economic activity. √√
- Businesses produce more output using less inputs as one factory may be
used to manufacture more products. √√
- Enables businesses to retain their competitive advantage by meeting the
needs of current/new customers/expanding into new unexplored
markets. √√
- Allow businesses to remain relevant/functional/operational in a dynamic
business environment. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of diversification
strategies.
Max. (6)
4.3 BBBEE pillars
PILLARS MOTIVATIONS
1. Management control √√ TM has recently promoted two black
women as a head of finance and public
relation respectively. √
2. Enterprise and Supplier Teddy Motors uses Khwela Transport
Development/ESD √√ Services to commute to and from work. √
Submax (4) Submax (2)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Award marks for the BBBEE pillars even if the quotes are
incomplete.
3. Do not award marks for motivations if the BBBEE pillars were
incorrectly identified.
Max. (6)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 19
4.4 Penalties of non-compliance with the SDA
- Businesses that do not comply with the SDA may receive a compliance order
from the Labour Court. This order forces the business to comply with the
SDA. √√
- Businesses who neglect to comply with the SDA may receive large fines and
may be given a jail sentence (imprisonment), which will be dependent on the
severity of the non-compliance. √√
- Businesses that do not pay the SDL may not offer learnerships to employees
or claim grants from the SDA. √√
- A labour inspector may indefinitely stop the operations of the business if the
business is found guilty of illegal practices. √√
- The business’s operating licence may be revoked, which may prevent the
business from continuing any form of operations. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the penalties for non-compliance to the
SDA.
Max. (4)
BUSINESS OPERATIONS
4.5 FOUR sources of external recruitment
- Recruitment agencies √
- Billboards √
- Printed media such as newspapers/flyers/ pamphlets/magazines/
government gazette √
- Electronic media such as radio/internet/TV √
- Social media/Social networks/Business websites√
- Walk-ins √
- Head hunting √
- Professional associations √
- Networking √
- Educational/Training institutions √
- Word-of-mouth √
- Any other relevant answer related to sources of external recruitment.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only.
Max. (4)
4.6 Legal requirements of employment contract
- The employer and employee/Both parties must sign √ the contract. √
- Employer and employee must agree √ to any changes to the contract. √
- No party may unilaterally change aspects √ of the employment contract. √
- The remuneration package/including benefits √ must be clearly indicated. √
- The employment contract may not contain any requirements√ that are in
conflict with the BCEA. √
- Aspects of the employment contract can be renegotiated √ during the course
of employment. √
- The employer must explain the terms and conditions √ of the employment
contract to the employee. √
- Conditions of employment/duties/responsibilities of the employees √ must be
stipulated clearly. √
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20 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
- All business policies, procedures and disciplinary codes/rules √ can form part
of the employment contract. √
- The employer must allow the employee to thoroughly read through the
- contract √ before it is signed. √
- The employment contract should include a code of conduct √ and code of
ethics. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the legal requirements of the employment
contract.
Max. (6)
4.7.1 Ways to reduce the cost of quality from scenario
- Wally Enterprise (WE) introduced the use of quality circles to discuss
ways to improve quality of work. √
- Wally Enterprise (WE) employees improve communication about
quality challenges and learn from experience. √
NOTE: Only mark the first TWO (2) ways. (2 x 1) (2)
4.7.2 Other ways TQM can reduce the cost of quality
- Schedule activities to eliminate duplication of tasks. √√
- Share responsibilities for quality output amongst management and
workers. √√
- Train employees at all levels, so that everyone understands their role
in quality management. √√
- Develop work systems that empower employees to find new ways of
improving quality. √√
- Work closely with suppliers to improve the quality of raw materials
/inputs. √√
- Reduce investment on expensive, but ineffective inspection
procedures in the production process. √√
- Implement pro-active maintenance programmes for
equipment/machinery to reduce/eliminate breakdowns. √√/
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which TQM can reduce
the cost of quality.
NOTE: Do not award marks for responses that are quoted from the
scenario in QUESTION 4.7.1.
Max. (4)
4.8 Role of quality circles as part of continuous improvement to processes and
systems
- Solve problems related to quality and implement improvements. √√
- Investigate problems and suggest solutions to management. √√
- Ensures that there is no duplication of activities/tasks in the workplace. √√
- Make suggestions for improving systems and processes in the workplace. √√
- Improve the quality of products/services/productivity through regular reviews of
quality processes. √√
- Contribute towards the improvement and development of the organisation. √√
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 21
- Reduce costs of redundancy and wasteful efforts in the long run. √√
- Create harmony and high performance in the workplace. √√
- Increase employees’ morale/motivation to boost the team spirit in
achieving organisational goals. √√
- Build a healthy workplace relationship between the employer and
employee. √√
- Improve employees’ communication at all levels of the business. √√
- Improve employees’ loyalty/commitment to organisational goals. √√
- Increase the demand for products/services of the business. √√
- Monitor/Reinforce strategies to improve the smooth running of business
operations. √√
- Develop a positive attitude/sense of involvement in decision-making
processes of the services offered. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the role of quality circles as part of
continuous improvement to processes and systems.
Max. (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 4 MARKS
4.1 4
4.2 6
4.3 6
4.4 4
4.5 4
4.6 6
4.7.1 2
4.7.2 4
4.8 4
TOTAL 40
TOTAL SECTION B: 80
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22 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
SECTION C
Mark the FIRST question only.
QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (STRATEGIES)
5.1 Introduction
- Strategic management process helps businesses to identify challenges in
the business environments and to develop plans to overcome these
challenges. √
- Porter’s Five Forces helps the business to scan the market environment and
to determine it profitability potential. √
- Intensive strategies help the business to achieve growth and increase
competitive advantage. √
- Strategy evaluation enable businesses to identify gaps in the chosen
strategy with the aim of developing new/additional strategies. √
- Any other relevant introduction related to the strategic management
process/Porters Five Forces/types of intensive strategies/steps in strategy
evaluation. (Any 2 x 1) (2)
5.2 Strategic management process
Option 1
- Businesses should have a clear vision, mission statement/ measurable/
realistic objective in place. √√
- Identify opportunities/weaknesses/strengths/threats by conducting
environmental scanning/situational analysis. √√
- Tools available for environmental scanning may include a SWOT
analysis/Porter’s Five Forces model/PESTLE analysis/industrial analysis
tools. √√
- Formulate alternative strategies to respond to the challenges. √√
- Develop (an) action plan(s), including the tasks to be done/deadlines to be
met/ resources to be procured. √√
- Implement selected strategies by communicating it to all stakeholders/
organising business resources/motivating staff. √√
- Continuously evaluate/monitor/measure strategies in order to take
corrective action. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.
OR
Option 2
- Businesses should review/analyse/re-examine their vision/mission
statement. √√
- Conduct an environmental analysis using models such as
SWOT/PESTLE/Porter’s Five Forces. √√
- Formulate a strategy, such as a defensive/retrenchment strategy. √√
- Implement a strategy, using a template such as an action plan. √√
- Control/Evaluate/Monitor the implemented strategy to identify
gaps/deviations in implementation. √√
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 23
-Take corrective action to ensure goals/objectives are met. √√
-Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.
Max. (10)
5.3 Application of Porter’s Five Forces model
5.3.1 Bargaining power of suppliers
- The business must assess the power of the suppliers √ in influencing
prices. √
- Suppliers that deliver high quality products may have power √ over
the business. √
- The more powerful the suppliers, √ the less control the business has
over them. √
- The smaller the number of suppliers the more powerful they may
be √ as the choice of suppliers may be limited. √
- The business must identify the kind of power his suppliers have √ in
terms of the quality of their products/services, their reliability and their
ability to make prompt deliveries. √
- Any other relevant answer related to power of suppliers as a force of
the Porter’s Five Forces Model.
Submax (6)
5.3.2 Competitive rivalry/Power of competitors
- If the competitors have unique products/services, √ then they will
have greater power. √
- Some competitors have the necessary resources to start and survive
price wars √ and will continue selling at a loss until some/all
competitors leave the market. √
- A business with many competitors in the same market, √ has very
little power over their market. √
- Competitors selling the same products may have a greater
impact √ on the market of the business. √
- Competitors using various pricing and marketing strategies, √ are
likely to have power over the business. √
- Any other relevant answer related to power of competitors as a force
of the Porter’s Five Forces Model.
Submax (6)
Max. (12)
5.4 THREE types of intensive strategies
5.4.1 Market Penetration √√
- New products penetrate an existing market at a low price, √ until it is
well known to the customers and then the prices increase. √
- Businesses focus on selling existing products into existing
markets √ to increase their market share. √
- The business use market research on existing clients to decide how
to improve their marketing mix. √
- Aggressive marketing campaigns such as lowering prices √ are used
to attract potential/existing clients.
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24 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
- Embark on an intensive advertising campaign √ to increase
awareness and customer loyalty. √
- Employ more sales staff √ to improve sales/services. √
- Any other relevant answer related to market penetration as an
intensive strategy.
Strategy (2)
Description (2)
Submax (4)
5.4.2 Market Development √√
- It is a growth strategy where businesses aim to sell its existing
products √ in new markets. √
- Businesses target consumers in a potential market √ that is
outside of its normal target market. √
- Increasing sales of existing products √ by finding new ways to
develop new markets. √
- Prices are restructured √ to cater for customers of all income
levels. √
- Any other relevant answer related to market development as an
intensive strategy.
Strategy (2)
Description (2)
Submax (4)
5.4.3 Product Development √√
- It is a growth strategy where businesses aim to introduce new
products √ into existing markets. √
- Businesses generate new ideas/develop new products/services √
for existing markets. √
- Businesses conduct test marketing/market research √ to establish
whether new products will be accepted by existing customers. √
- Ensure that new products are different/of a higher quality √ than
those of competitors. √
- Any other relevant answer related to product development as an
intensive strategy.
Strategy (2)
Description (2)
Submax (4)
Max. (12)
5.5 Steps in strategy evaluation
- Examine the underlying basis of a business strategy. √√
- Look forward and backwards into the implementation process. √√
- Compare the expected performance with the actual performance. √√
- Determine the reasons for deviations and analyse these reasons. √√
- Take corrective action so that deviations may be corrected. √√
- Set specific dates for control and follow up. √√
- Draw up a table of the advantages and disadvantages of a strategy. √√
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 25
- Decide on the desired outcome that will result in the achievement of
business goals/as envisaged when strategies were implemented. √√
- Consider the impact of the strategic implementation in the internal/
external environments of the business. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the steps in strategy evaluation.
NOTE: The steps may be in any order.
Max. (12)
5.6 Conclusion
- Businesses should conduct a strategic management process in order to
devise effective strategies that are relevant to identified challenges. √√
- With Porter’s the business can have a clear understanding of where his
power lies, and business can avoid taking any wrong steps in future. √√
- Intensive strategies can help the business to increase the market share
and reduce the business vulnerability to actions of competitors. √√
- Strategy evaluation allows businesses to improve on the quality of services
offered to customers resulting in a larger market share. √√
- Any other relevant conclusion related to the strategic management
process/Porters five forces/types of intensive strategies/steps in strategy
evaluation. (Any 1 x 2) (2)
[40]
QUESTION 5: BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Strategic management process 10
Application of Porters Five Forces Max
o Power of suppliers 12 32
o Power of competitors/Competitive rivalry
Types of intensive strategies 12
Steps in strategy evaluation 12
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis, interpretation 2
Synthesis 2 8
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
*LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
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26 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
QUESTION 6: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (QUALITY OF PERFORMANCE)
6.1 Introduction
- A good quality management system could allow businesses to review
their quality processes aimed at producing products of high quality
standards. √
- Quality management and quality performance help the business to
achieve pre-set standards and quality in different business functions. √
- Funds should only be used to buy the best quality raw materials to
avoid/prevent faulty products. √
- Processes and systems are the flow of activities implemented to create
or deliver products and services to customers. √
- The effective implementation of TQM elements may give businesses a
competitive advantage resulting in reduced cost of quality. √
- Any other relevant introduction related to benefits of a good quality
management system/differences between quality management and
quality performance/impact of adequate financing ad capacity/impact of
continuous improvement to processes and sytems/how TQM can reduce
the cost of quality. (Any 2 x 1) (2)
6.2 Benefits of a good quality management system
- Effective customer services are rendered, resulting in increased
customer satisfaction. √√
- Time and resources are used efficiently. √√
- Productivity increases through proper time management/using high
quality resources. √√
- Products/Services are constantly improved resulting in increased levels
of customer satisfaction. √√
- Vision/Mission/Business goals may be achieved. √√
- A business has a competitive advantage over its competitors. √√
- Regular training will continuously improve the quality of employees' skills/
knowledge. √√
- Employers and employees will have a healthy working relationship
resulting in happy/productive workers/improved employee morale/
productivity. √√
- Increased market share/Financial stability as more customers improve
profitability. √√
- Improves the business image as there are less defects/returns. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of a good quality
management system.
Max. (12)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 27
6.3 Difference between quality management and quality performance
QUALITY MANAGEMENT QUALITY PERFORMANCE
- Techniques/tools √ used to design/ - Total performance of each
improve the quality of a product. √ department measured √
against the specified
standards. √
- Can be used for accountability √ - Can be obtained if all
within each of the business departments work together √
functions. √ towards the same quality
standards. √
- Aims to ensure that the quality of - Quality is measured √
goods/services √ is consistent √/ through physical product/
Focuses on the means√ to achieve statistical output of
consistency. √ processes/surveys of the
users and/or buyers of
goods/services. √
- Any other relevant answer related to - Any other relevant answer
quality management. related to quality performance.
Submax (4) Submax (4)
NOTE: 1. The answer does not have to be in tabular form.
2. The difference does not have to link but must be clear.
3. Award maximum of FOUR (4) marks if the difference is
not clear./Mark either quality management or quality
performance.
Max. (8)
6.4 Impact of TQM elements on large businesses
6.4.1 Adequate financing and capacity
Positives/Advantages
- Large businesses have sufficient financing √ to test everything
before implementing. √
- They can afford to have systems in place to prevent defects √
in raw materials/products. √
- Able to afford product research/market researchers √ to gather
information about products/customers. √/Large businesses can
fund programmes √ aimed at improving quality processes. √
- Large businesses can afford to purchase √ quality raw materials
and equipment. √
- Any other relevant answer related to positive impact/
advantages of adequate financing and capacity as a TQM
element.
AND/OR
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28 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
Negatives/Disadvantages
- If the demand for the business product increases, orders start
coming faster than expected, √ and the company lacks the
capital required to fund the production of the stock to fill the
orders. √
- These rapidly growing businesses can consume large amounts
of capital √ as they try to balance normal operations and
expansion. √
- Any other relevant answer related to negative impact/
disadvantages of adequate financing and capacity as a TQM
element.
Submax (8)
Max. (16)
6.4.2 Continuous improvement to processes and systems
Positives/Advantages
- Businesses have more resources to check √ on quality
performance in each unit. √
- Enough capital resources are available for new equipment
required √ for processes and systems. √
- Businesses have a person dedicated to √ the improvement of
processes and systems. √
- Willing to take risk on/try new processes and systems √
because they are able to absorb the impact of losing money. √
- They can afford to use the services of the quality circles √ to
stay ahead of their competitors. √
- Any other relevant answer related to positive impact/
advantages of continuous improvement to processes and
systems as a TQM element.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Large scale manufacturing √ can complicate quality control. √
- Systems and processes take time and effort to implement in the
business √ as communication may delay the process. √
- Risk of changing parts of the business √ that are actually
working well. √
- Not all negative feedback from employees and customers is
going to be accurate, √ which may result in unnecessary
changes to systems and processes. √
- Any other relevant answer related to negative impact/
disadvantages of continuous improvement to processes and
systems as a TQM element.
Submax (8)
Max. (16)
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(EC/SEPTEMBER 2025) BUSINESS STUDIES P1 29
6.5 Quality performance of the production can contribute to the success of
the business
- Provide high quality services/products according to specifications. √√
- The production/operating processes of a business should be done
correctly through proper production planning and control. √√
- Products and services should be produced at the lowest possible cost to
allow for profit maximisation. √√
- Businesses should clearly communicate the roles and responsibilities to
the production workforce. √√
- Products must meet customers’ requirements by being safe, reliable and
durable. √√
- Businesses should have good after-sales services and warrantees. √√
- Empower workers so that they can take pride in their workmanship. √√
- Get accreditation from the SABS/ISO 9001 to ensure that quality products
are being produced. √√
- Monitor processes and find the root causes of production problems. √√
- Implement quality control systems to ensure that quality products are
consistently being produced. √√
- Utilise machines and equipment optimally. √√
- Accurately calculate the production costs. √√
- Select the appropriate production system such as mass/batch/
jobbing. √√
- Specify the product or service standards and take note of the factors that
consumers use to judge quality. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to how the quality performance of
production can contribute to the success of the business.
Max. (10)
6.6 Conclusion
- A good quality management system requires businesses to do continuous
research on ways to improve quality. √√
- Good quality can ensure the sustainability of the business in the long run
and lead to quality in all business departments. √√
- Businesses that have quality processes and systems in place will produce
good quality products and can provide excellent customer services. √√
- Businesses that always implement TQM elements are less likely to
experience voluntary staff turnover and reduced complaints from
customers. √√
- Any other relevant conclusion related to benefits of a good quality
management system/differences between quality management and
quality performance/impact of adequate financing ad capacity/impact of
continuous improvement to processes and sytems/how TQM can reduce
the cost of quality.
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30 BUSINESS STUDIES P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2025)
QUESTION 6: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Benefits of a good quality management
12
system
Differences between quality
8
management and quality performance
Max.
Impact of TQM elements
32
o Adequate financing and capacity
16
o Continuous improvement to
processes and systems
Quality performance of production 10
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis, interpretation 2
8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
*LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 150
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