NATIONAL
SENIOR CERTIFICATE
GRADE 12
BUSINESS STUDIES P1
NOVEMBER 2025
MARKING GUIDELINES
MARKS: 150
These marking guidelines consist of 31 pages
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Business Studies Grade 12 Paper 1 NSC November 2025 Memo
Grade 12 Business Studies Paper 1 memorandum from the NSC November Exam 2025, 31 pages. Read online or get the free PDF download, question paper linked when available.
Business Studies · Grade 12 · NSC November Exam · 2025. Memorandum, 31 pages. Read online or download the PDF.
- Subject
- Business Studies
- Grade
- Grade 12
- Document type
- Memorandum
- Year
- 2025
- Exam period
- NSC November Exam
- Paper
- 1
- Curriculum
- CAPS
- Pages
- 31
- File size
- 790.0 KB
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Business Studies/P1 2 DBE/November 2025
NSC – Marking Guidelines
NOTES TO MARKERS
PREAMBLE
The notes to markers are provided for quality assurance purposes to ensure the following:
(a) Fairness, consistency and reliability in the standard of marking
(b) Facilitate the moderation of candidates' scripts at the different levels
(c) Streamline the marking process considering the broad spectrum of markers across
the country
(d) Implement appropriate measures in the teaching, learning and assessment of the subject
at schools/institutions of learning
1. For marking and moderation purposes, the following colours are recommended:
Marker: Red
Senior Marker: Green
Deputy Chief Marker: Orange
Chief Marker: Pink
Internal Moderator: Black/Blue
DBE Moderator: Turquoise
2. Candidates' responses must be in full sentences for SECTIONS B and C.
However, this would depend on the nature of the question.
3. A comprehensive marking guideline has been provided but this is by no means
exhaustive. Due consideration should be given to an answer that is correct but:
• Uses a different expression from that which appears in the marking
guideline
• Comes from another credible source
• Original
• A different approach is used
NOTE: There is only ONE correct answer in SECTION A.
4. Take note of other relevant answers provided by candidates which relate to a
particular question and allocate marks accordingly. (In cases where the answer
is unclear or indicates some understanding, part-marks should be awarded, for
example, one mark instead of the maximum of two marks.)
5. The word 'Sub-max' is used to facilitate the allocation of marks within a question
or sub-question.
6. The purpose of circling marks (guided by 'max' in the breakdown of marks) on
the right-hand side is to ensure consistency and accuracy in the marking of
scripts as well as for calculation and moderation purposes.
7. Subtotals to questions must be written in the right-hand margin. Circle the
subtotals as indicated by the allocation of marks. This must be guided by 'max'
in the marking guidelines. Only the total for each question should appear in the PM
NG
left-hand margin next to the appropriate question number.
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Business Studies/P1 3 DBE/November 2025
NSC – Marking Guidelines
8. In an indirect question, the theory as well as the response must be relevant and
related to the question.
9. Correct numbering of answers to questions or sub questions is recommended in
SECTIONS A and B. However, if the numbering is incorrect, follow the sequence
of the candidate's responses. Candidates will be penalised if the latter is not
clear.
10. No additional credit must be given for repetition of facts. Indicate with an 'R'.
11. The differentiation between 'evaluate' and 'critically evaluate' can be explained
as follows:
11.1 When 'evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond in either a
positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and negative)
stance, e.g., Positive: 'COIDA eliminates time and costs spent√ on
lengthy civil court proceedings.'√
11.2 When 'critically evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond
in either a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and
negative) stance. In this instance candidates are also expected to
support their responses with more depth, e.g., 'COIDA eliminates time
and costs spent√ on lengthy civil court proceedings√, because the
employer will not be liable for compensation to the employee for injuries
sustained during working hours as long as it can be proved that the
business was not negligent.'√
NOTE: 1. The above could apply to 'analyse' as well.
2. Note the placing of the tick (√) in the allocation of marks.
12. The allocation of marks must be informed by the nature of the question,
cognitive verb used, mark allocation in the marking guideline and the context of
each question.
Cognitive verbs, such as:
12.1 Name, state, give, outline, quote, identify, motivate, recommend,
suggest, advise (list not exhaustive) do not usually require much depth
in candidates' responses. Therefore, the mark allocation for each
statement/answer appears at the end.
12.2 Define, describe, explain, discuss, elaborate, distinguish, differentiate,
compare, tabulate, analyse, evaluate, critically evaluate (list not
exhaustive) require a greater depth of understanding, application and
reasoning. Therefore, the marks must be allocated more objectively to
ensure that assessing is conducted according to established norms so
that uniformity, consistency and fairness are achieved.
13. Mark only the FIRST answer where candidates offer more than one answer for
SECTION B and C questions that require one answer.
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Business Studies/P1 4 DBE/November 2025
NSC – Marking Guidelines
14. SECTION B
14.1 If, for example, FIVE facts are required, mark the candidate's FIRST FIVE
responses and ignore the rest of the responses. Indicate by drawing a line across
the unmarked portion.
NOTE: 1. This applies only to questions where the number of facts is
specified.
2. The above also applies to responses in SECTION C (where
applicable)
14.2 If two facts are written in one sentence, award the candidate FULL credit. Point
14.1 above still applies.
14.3 If candidates are required to provide their own examples/views, brainstorm this
at the marking centre to finalise alternative answers and consult with the Internal
Moderator at the DBE for approval in consultation with the UMALUSI external
moderators.
14.4 Use of the cognitive verbs and allocation of marks:
14.4.1 If the number of facts is specified, questions that require candidates to
'describe/discuss/explain' may be marked as follows:
• Fact 2 marks (or as indicated in the marking guidelines)
• Explanation 1 mark (two marks will be allocated in Section C)
The 'fact' and 'explanation' are given separately in the marking guideline
to facilitate mark allocation.
14.4.2 If the number of facts required is not specified, the allocation of marks
must be informed by the nature of the question and the maximum mark
allocated in the marking guideline.
14.5 ONE mark may be awarded for answers that are easy to recall, requires
one-word answers or is quoted directly from a scenario/case study. This
applies to SECTIONS B and C in particular (where applicable).
15. SECTION C
15.1 The breakdown of the mark allocation for the essays is as follows:
Introduction
Maximum:
Content
32
Conclusion
Insight 8
TOTAL 40
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NSC – Marking Guidelines
15.2 Insight consists of the following components:
Layout/Structure Is there an introduction, paragraphs and a conclusion? 2
Analysis and Is the candidate able to break down the question into 2
interpretation headings/subheadings/interpret it correctly to show
understanding of what is being asked?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
All headings addressed: 1 (One 'A')
Interpretation (16 to 32 marks): 1 (One 'A')
Synthesis Are there relevant decisions/facts/responses made based 2
on the questions?
Option 1: Only relevant facts: 2 marks (No '-S')
Where a candidate answers 50% or more (two
to four sub-questions) of the question with only
relevant facts; no '-S' appears in the left
margin. Award the maximum of TWO (2)
marks for synthesis.
Option 2: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One '-S')
Where a candidate answers less than 50%
(only one sub-question) of the question with
only OR some relevant facts; one '-S' appears
in the left margin. Award a maximum of ONE
(1) mark for synthesis.
Option 3: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One '-S')
Where a candidate answers FOUR sub-
questions, but one/two/three sub-questions
with no relevant facts; one '-S' appears in the
left margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1)
mark for synthesis.
Option 4: No relevant facts: 0 mark (Two '-S')
Where a candidate answers less than 50%
(only one sub-question) of the questions with
no relevant facts; two '-S' appears in the left
margin. Award a ZERO mark for synthesis.
Originality Is there evidence of one example in any TWO of the four 2
sub-questions, not older than two (2) years that are based
on recent information, current trends and developments?
TOTAL FOR INSIGHT: 8
TOTAL MARKS FOR FACTS: 32
TOTAL MARKS FOR ESSAY (8 + 32): 40
NOTE: 1. The candidate must respond to at least any TWO of the four sub-
questions in the INTRODUCTION and at least ONE of the four
sub-questions in the CONCLUSION. Verbatim quoting of
definitions/facts from credible sources is strongly discouraged.
2. The candidate forfeits marks for layout if the words
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not stated.
3. No marks will be awarded for layout, if the headings
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not supported by an
explanation.
4. No marks will be awarded for contents repeated from the
introduction and conclusion.
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NSC – Marking Guidelines
15.3 Indicate insight in the left-hand margin with a symbol e.g. ('L, A, -S and/or O').
15.4 The breakdown of marks is indicated at the end of the suggested answer/
marking guideline to each question.
15.5 Mark all relevant facts until the SUB MAX/MAX mark in a subsection has been
attained. Write SUB MAX/MAX after maximum marks have been obtained but
continue reading for originality 'O'.
15.6 At the end of each essay indicate the allocation of marks for facts and marks
for insight as follows: (L – Layout, A – Analysis, S – Synthesis, O – Originality)
as in the table below.
CONTENT MARKS
Facts 32 (max.)
L 2
A 2
S 2
O 2
TOTAL 40
15.7 When awarding marks for facts, take note of the sub-maxima indicated,
especially if candidates do not make use of the same subheadings. Remember,
headings and subheadings are encouraged and contribute to insight
(structuring/logical flow/sequencing) and indicate clarity of thought. (See
MARK BREAKDOWN at the end of each question.)
15.8 If the candidate identifies/interprets the question INCORRECTLY, then he/she
may still obtain marks for layout.
15.9 If a different approach is used by candidates, ensure that the answers are
assessed according to the mark allocation/subheadings as indicated in the
marking guideline.
15.10 15.10.1 Award TWO marks for complete sentences. Award ONE mark for
phrases, incomplete sentences and vague answers.
15.10.2 With effect from November 2015, the TWO marks will not
necessarily appear at the end of each completed sentence. The ticks
(√) will be separated and indicated next to each fact, e.g. 'Product
development is a growth strategy √, where businesses aim to
introduce new products into existing markets.'√
This will be informed by the nature and context of the question, as
well as the cognitive verb used.
15.11 With effect from November 2017, the maximum of TWO (2) marks for facts
shown as headings in the marking guidelines, will not necessarily apply to each
question. This would also depend on the nature of the question.
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NSC – Marking Guidelines
SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1 1.1.1 C √√
1.1.2 A √√
1.1.3 D √√
1.1.4 A √√
1.1.5 B √√ (5 x 2) (10)
1.2 1.2.1 National Skills √√
1.2.2 threat √√
1.2.3 job description √√
1.2.4 selection √√
1.2.5 management √√ (5 x 2) (10)
1.3 1.3.1 D √√
1.3.2 J √√
1.3.3 A √√
1.3.4 G √√
1.3.5 H √√ (5 x 2) (10)
TOTAL SECTION A: 30
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 1 MARKS
1.1 10
1.2 10
1.3 10
TOTAL 30
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Business Studies/P1 8 DBE/November 2025
NSC – Marking Guidelines
SECTION B
Mark the answers to the FIRST TWO questions only.
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
2.1 Types of leave as stipulated in the Basic Conditions of Employment
Act/BCEA
- Annual √
- Sick √
- Maternity √
- Parental/Adoption/Commissioning parental/Paternity √
- Family responsibility √
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only. (4 x 1) (4)
2.2 Role of SETAs in supporting the Skills Development Act/SDA
- Report to the Director General. √√
- Promote and establish learnerships. √√
- Collect levies and pay out grants as required. √√
- Provide accreditation for skills development facilitators. √√
- Register learnership agreements/learning programmes. √√
- Approve workplace skills plans and annual training reports. √√
- Monitor/Evaluate the actual training by service providers. √√
- Allocate grants to employers/education/training providers. √√
- Oversee training in different sectors of the South African economy. √√
- Develop sector skills plans in line with the National Skills Development
Strategy. √√
- Draw up skills development plans for their specific economic sectors. √√
- Provide training material/programmes for skills development facilitators. √√
- Pay out grants to businesses that are complying with the requirements of
the Skills Development Act. √√
- Identify suitable workplaces for practical work experience. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the role of SETAs in supporting the SDA.
Max (4)
2.3 Porter's Five Forces model
2.3.1 Porter's Five Forces model from the scenario
Competitive rivalry/Power of competitors √√ (2)
Motivation
BF sales have decreased as Bright Eyewear sells unique sunglasses
at reasonable prices. √ (1)
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NSC – Marking Guidelines
NOTE: 1. Do not award marks for the motivation, if the force
of Porter's Five Forces model was incorrectly
identified.
2. Award marks for the force of Porter's Five Forces
model even if the motivation was incomplete.
Max (3)
2.3.2 Other force of Porter's Five Forces model
Bargaining power of suppliers/Power of suppliers √√
- Assess the power of the suppliers in influencing prices. √
- Suppliers that deliver high quality/unique/scarce products may
have power over the business. √
- The more powerful the suppliers, the less control the business
has over them. √
- The smaller the number of suppliers, the more powerful they may
be as the choice of suppliers may be limited. √
- Identify the kind of power suppliers' have in terms of the quality
of products/services/reliability/ability to make prompt deliveries.√
Any other relevant answer related to how businesses could apply
power of suppliers as a force of Porter's Five forces model to analyse
their position in the market environment.
Force (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
Bargaining power of buyers/Power of buyers √√
- Assess how easy it is for buyers/customers to drive prices down.√
- Determine the number of buyers/the importance of each buyer to
the business and the cost of switching to other products. √
- A few powerful buyers are often able to dictate their terms to the
business. √
- Buyers buying in bulk can bargain for prices in their favour. √
- If buyers can do without the business's products then they have
more power to determine the prices and terms of sale. √
- Conduct market research to gather more information about its
buyers. √
Any other relevant answer related to how businesses could apply
power of buyers as a force of Porter's Five forces model to analyse
their position in the market environment.
Force (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
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NSC – Marking Guidelines
Threat of substitution/substitutes √√
- Business's products that can be easily substituted, weakens the
power of the business in the market. √
- Establish whether the sellers of substitute products have
improved their product/sell lower quality goods at lower prices. √
- If the business sells unique products it will not be threatened by
substitute products. √
- Assess if customers are using substitute products/services and
determine reasons for using substitutes. √
Any other relevant answer related to how businesses could apply
threat of substitution/substitutes as a force of Porter's Five forces
model to analyse their position in the market environment.
Force (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
Threat/Barriers of new entrants to the market √√
- If the barriers to enter the market are low, then it is easy for new
businesses to enter the market/industry. √
- If the business is highly profitable, it will attract potential
competitors that want to benefit from high profits. √
- New competitors can quickly/easily enter the market, if it takes
little time/money to enter the market. √
- If there are a few suppliers of a product/service but many buyers,
it may be easy to enter the market. √
Any other relevant answer related to how businesses could apply
threat/barriers of new entrants to the market as a force of Porter's
Five forces model to analyse their position in the market
environment.
Force (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first ONE (1) only.
2. Do not award marks for competitive rivalry/power
of competitors. Max (3)
2.4 Steps in strategy evaluation
- Examine the underlying basis √ of a business strategy. √
- Look forward and backwards √ into the implementation process. √
- Compare the expected performance √ with the actual performance. √
- Determine the reasons for deviations √ and analyse these reasons. √
- Take corrective action √ so that deviations may be corrected. √
- Set specific dates √ for control and follow up. √
- Draw up a table √ of the advantages and disadvantages of a strategy. √
- Decide on the desired outcome √ as envisaged when strategies were
implemented. √
- Consider the impact of the strategic implementation √ in the internal and
external environments of the business. √
Any other relevant answer related to the steps in strategy evaluation.
NOTE: Accept the steps in any order
Max (4)
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NSC – Marking Guidelines
2.5 Types of intensive strategies
2.5.1 Market penetration √√
- New products penetrate an existing market at a low price, until it
is well known to the customers and then the price increases. √
- Businesses focus on selling existing products into existing markets
to increase their market share. √
- Businesses use market research on existing clients to decide on
how to improve their marketing mix. √
- Aggressive marketing campaigns such as lowering/reducing
prices are used to attract potential/existing clients. √
- Embark on an intensive advertising campaign to increase
awareness and customer loyalty. √
- Employ more sales staff to improve sales/services. √
Any other relevant answer related to market penetration as a type of
intensive strategy.
Strategy (2)
Discussion (1)
Submax (3)
2.5.2 Market Development √√
- It is a growth strategy where businesses aim to sell their existing
products in new markets. √
- Businesses target consumers in a potential market that is outside
of its normal target market. √
- Increasing sales of existing products by finding new ways to
develop new markets. √
- Prices are restructured/reviewed to cater for customers/consumers
of all income levels. √
Any other relevant answer related to market development as a type
of intensive strategy.
Strategy (2)
Discussion (1)
Submax (3)
2.5.3 Product development √√
- It is a growth strategy where businesses aim to introduce new
products into existing markets/modifies an existing product. √
- Businesses generate new ideas/develop new products/services
for existing/current markets. √
- Businesses conduct test marketing/market research to establish
whether new products will be accepted by existing customers. √
- New products may be different/of a higher quality than those of
competitors. √
Any other relevant answer related to product development as a type
of intensive strategy.
Strategy (2)
Discussion (1)
Submax (3)
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
Max (6)
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NSC – Marking Guidelines
2.6 Ways in which businesses can comply with the National Credit Act/NCA
2.6.1 Ways in which businesses can comply with the NCA from the
scenario
- MF conducts credit checks with the credit bureau before granting
of credit. √
- MF also ensures that their procedures adhere to the provisions
of the Financial Intelligent Centre Act (FICA). √
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Only award marks for responses that are quoted
from the scenario. (2 x 1) (2)
2.6.2 Other ways in which businesses can comply with the National
Credit Act/NCA
- Offer applicants pre-agreement statements. √√
- Disclose all costs of the loan/No hidden costs should be charged/
added. √√
- Businesses should be registered with the National Credit
Regulator. √√
- Submit an annual compliance report to the National Credit
Regulator. √√
- Conduct affordability assessment to ensure that consumers have
the ability to meet their obligations. √√
- Verify the identity of clients and report suspicious
transactions/train staff on their obligations in terms of FICA. √√
Any other relevant answer related to other ways in which businesses
can comply with the NCA.
NOTE: Do not award marks for responses that are quoted from
the scenario in QUESTION 2.6.1.
Max (4)
2.7 Ways in which businesses can apply ownership as a pillar of the Broad
Based Black Economic Empowerment Act/BBBEE
- Businesses should include black people √ in shareholding/partnerships/
franchises. √
- Encourage small black investors to invest in big companies √ and share
ownership. √
- Exempted Micro Enterprises (EMEs) with an ownership of 50% or more of
black people √ are promoted to level 3 of the BEE scorecard. √
- More opportunities are created for black people √ to become owners/
entrepreneurs. √
- Large businesses should form joint ventures √ with small black owned
businesses and share business risks. √
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- Businesses sometimes find it difficult √ to locate suitable black business
partners/shareholders who can afford shares. √
- Many black people cannot afford shares √ in companies/contributions to
partnerships. √
Any other relevant answer related to ways in which businesses can apply
ownership as a pillar of the BBBEE Act/BBBEE.
Max (6)
2.8 Advantages of diversification strategies
- Increases sales/revenue/income and business growth. √√
- Improves the business brand/image/brand awareness of the business. √√
- Reduces the risk of relying only on one product for sales/revenue/income.√√
- Businesses gain more technological capabilities through product
modification. √√
- Sustained profitability from different product lines during times of fluctuating
economic activities. √√
- Businesses produce more output using less inputs as one factory may be
used to manufacture more products. √√
- Enables businesses to retain their competitive advantage by meeting the
needs of current/new customers/expanding into new unexplored markets.√√
- Allow businesses to remain relevant/functional/operational in a dynamic
business environment. √√
- Enable businesses to establish additional markets in unrelated markets/
industries. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of diversification
strategies.
Max (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 2 MARKS
2.1 4
2.2 4
2.3.1 3
2.3.2 3
2.4 4
2.5 6
2.6.1 2
2.6.2 4
2.7 6
2.8 4
TOTAL 40
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NSC – Marking Guidelines
QUESTION 3: BUSINESS OPERATIONS
3.1 Examples of fringe benefits
- Pension fund √
- Medical aid fund/Health Insurance fund √
- Funeral benefit √
- Provident fund √
- Allowances/Car/Travel/Housing/Cell phone/Clothing √
- Performance based incentives √
- Issuing of bonus shares √
- Staff discount/Free or low-cost meal/Canteen facilities √
Any other relevant answer related to examples of fringe benefits.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only. (4 x 1) (4)
3.2 Placement procedure as a human resources activity
- Businesses should outline the specific responsibilities/expectations/skills of
the new position. √√
- Determine the successful candidate’s strengths/weaknesses/interests/skills
by subjecting him/her to a range of psychometric tests. √√
- Determine the relationship between the position and the competencies of the
new employee. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the placement procedure as a human
resources activity.
Max (6)
3.3 Salary determination method and implications of Labour Relations
Act/LRA on the human resources function
3.3.1 Salary determination method from the scenario
Piecemeal √√ (2)
3.3.2 Implications of the Labour Relations Act/LRA on the human
resources function
- Promotes resolution of labour disputes √ between employer and
employees. √
- Protects the rights of employees/employers √ as outlined in the
Constitution. √
- Advances economic development √ and social justice/labour
peace. √
- Provides for unresolved disputes √ to be referred to Labour
Courts/Labour Appeal Courts. √
- Promotes orderly negotiations and employee participation √ in
decision making in the workplace. √
- Workers cannot be easily dismissed √ as bargaining council/
Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration (CCMA)
processes need to be followed. √
- Provides a framework for bilateral meetings √ where employees,
trade unions and employers discuss matters relating to
employment. √
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- The human resource manager should allow workers to
form/establish workplace forums/trade unions/collective
bargaining/ bargaining councils √ to promote the interests of all
employees. √
- Clarify the transfer √ of contracts of employment. √/If a business
is transferred to another owner √ then the employee contracts
are also transferred. √
Any other relevant answer related to the implications of the LRA on
the human resources function.
Max (4)
3.4 Reasons for the termination of an employment contract
- The employer may dismiss an employee for a valid reason(s) such as
unsatisfactory job performance/misconduct. √√
- Employer may no longer have work for redundant employees/cannot fulfil
the contract/is restructuring. √√
- The employer may retrench some employees due to insolvency/may not be
able to pay the employees. √√
- Employees may decide to leave/resign voluntarily for better job
opportunities. √√
- An employee may have reached the pre-determined age for retirement. √√
- Incapacity of an employee to work due to illness/injuries. √√
- By a mutual agreement between the employer and employee. √√
- The duration of the employment contract expires/comes to an end. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the reasons for the termination of an
employment contract.
Max (4)
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3.5 Difference between quality control and quality assurance
QUALITY CONTROL QUALITY ASSURANCE
- System that ensures the desired - Checks carried out during and after
quality is met by inspecting the the production process. √√
final product. √√
- Ensure that finished products - Ensure that required standards have
meet the required standards. √√ been met at every stage of the
process. √√
- Process of ensuring that products - Processes put in place to ensure that
are consistently manufactured to the quality of products/services/
high standards. √√ systems adhere to pre-set standards
with minimal defects/delays/
short-comings. √√
- Checking raw materials/ - Ensuring that every process is aimed
employees/machinery/ to get the product “right the first time”
workmanship/products to ensure and prevent mistakes from
that high standards are happening. √√
maintained. √√
- Includes setting targets/ - The 'building in' of quality as opposed
measuring performance and to 'checking of' quality. √√
taking corrective measures. √√
Any other relevant answer related to Any other relevant answer related to
quality control. quality assurance.
Submax (2) Submax (2)
NOTE: 1. The answer does not have to be in tabular format.
2. The difference does not have to link, but must be clear.
3. Award a maximum of TWO (2) marks if the difference is not
clear/Mark either quality control or quality assurance only.
Max (4)
3.6 Total quality management/TQM
3.6.1 Ways in which a business applies TQM to reduce the cost of
quality from the scenario
- BM schedules their activities to avoid the duplication of tasks. √
- The management of BM shares the responsibility for quality
output with employees. √
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Only award marks for responses that are quoted
from the scenario.
(2 x 1) (2)
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3.6.2 Impact of total quality management/TQM if it is poorly
implemented
- Setting unrealistic deadlines √ that may not be achieved. √
- Employees may not be adequately trained √ resulting in poor
quality products. √
- Decline in productivity, √ because of stoppages. √
- Businesses may not be able to make necessary changes of
products/services √ to satisfy the needs of customers. √
- Businesses' reputation/image may suffer √ because of poor
quality/defective goods. √
- Customers will have many alternatives to choose from √ and the
impact could be devastating to businesses. √
- Investors might withdraw investment, √ if there is a decline in
profits. √
- Decline in sales √ as more goods are returned by unhappy
customers. √
- High staff turnover, √ because of poor skills development. √
- Undocumented/Uncontrolled quality control processes/systems
√ could result in errors/deviations from pre-set quality
standards.√
Any other relevant answer related to the impact of TQM if it is poorly
implemented by businesses.
Max (4)
3.7 Advantages of monitoring and evaluation of quality processes as a total
quality management/TQM element on large businesses
- Prevents product defects √ and minimises wastage/customer complaints. √
- Good quality checks/procedures minimise √ the replacement/breakdown of
equipment/machinery on a regular basis. √
- May be equipped to get things done right √ the first time. √
- Improve performance √ and maintain high quality standards. √
- Improve current and future management √ of quality
outputs/outcomes/impact. √
- Provide clear indication about quality aspects √ that are contributing to the
achievement of goals/targets. √
- Modify interventions that may improve √ the efficient use of resources. √
- Support management to acquire information needed √ to make informed
decision about processes. √
- Cost of production is reduced √ as deviations from set standards can be
corrected. √
- Strategies are revised √ in order to improve the quality of the product and
services/business image. √
- Allows for quality control checks √ and procedures at key points. √
- Key performance indicators are carefully selected √ to monitor and evaluate
the outcome. √
- Benchmarking is used to find best practices √ in order to determine the
competitive position of the business. √
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- Quality circles meet on regular basis √ to evaluate the progress in terms of
quality. √
- Continuous research is conducted on latest developments √ to ensure that
TQM planning is up to date. √
Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of
monitoring and evaluation of quality processes as a TQM element on large
businesses.
Max (6)
3.8 Quality indicators of the public relations function
- Dealing quickly with negative publicity./Less/little/no incidents of negative
publicity. √√
- Providing regular/positive press releases. √√
- Implement sustainable corporate social investment (CSI) programmes. √√
- Good/positive results of feedback from public surveys on business image.√√
- High standard of internal publicity/appearance of buildings/professional
telephone etiquette. √√
- Deliver quality goods/services that promote the brand/image with key
stakeholders/ customers/suppliers/government/service providers. √√
- Compliance with recent legislation, such as BEE compliant. √√
Any other relevant answer related to quality indicators of the public relations
function.
Max (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 3 MARKS
3.1 4
3.2 6
3.3.1 2
3.3.2 4
3.4 4
3.5 4
3.6.1 2
3.6.2 4
3.7 6
3.8 4
TOTAL 40
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QUESTION 4: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
4.1 Types of defensive strategies
- Divestiture √
- Retrenchment √
- Liquidation √
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 1) (2)
4.2 Strategic management process
OPTION 1
- Have a clear vision/mission statement/measurable/realistic objective in
place. √√
- Identify opportunities/weaknesses/strengths/threats by conducting
environmental scanning/situational analysis. √√
- Tools available for environmental scanning may include a SWOT analysis/
Porter's Five Forces model/PESTLE analysis/industrial analysis tools. √√
- Formulate alternative strategies to respond to the challenges. √√
- Develop (an) action plan(s), including the tasks to be done/deadlines to be
met/resources to be procured. √√
- Implement selected strategies by communicating it to all stakeholders/
organising business resources/motivating staff. √√
- Continuously evaluate/monitor/measure strategies in order to take
corrective action. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.
OR
OPTION 2
- Review/Analyse/Re-examine their vision/mission statement. √√
- Conduct an environmental analysis using models such as SWOT/PESTLE/
Porter's Five Forces. √√
- Formulate a strategy, such as defensive/retrenchment strategy. √√
- Implement a strategy, using a template such as an action plan. √√
- Control/Evaluate/Monitor the implemented strategy to identify gaps/
deviations in implementation. √√
- Take corrective action to ensure goals/objectives are met. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.
Max (4)
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4.3 Challenges of business environments
CHALLENGES BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT
(4.3.1) (4.3.2)
1. Their exports have decreased due Macro environment √
to unfavourable exchange rates. √
2. The workers of GF are also not Micro environment √
meeting their deadlines because
they are often late for work. √
Max (2) Max (2)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) challenges only.
2. If the business environment is not linked to the challenge, mark
the challenge only.
3. Accept responses in any order.
4.4 Impact of the COIDA on businesses
Positives/Advantages
- Promotes safety √ in the workplace. √
- Domestic workers can now claim compensation √ for work related
injuries/illnesses. √
- Employees do not contribute √ towards this fund. √
- Claiming processes √ are relatively simple. √
- Eliminates time and costs √ spent on lengthy civil court proceedings. √
- Any compensation to an employee/the family √ is exempt from income tax.√
- Employers are protected from financial burden √ should an accident occur
in the workplace provided that the employer was not negligent. √
- Makes businesses more socially responsible √ as they cannot just employ
workers at random in dangerous working conditions. √
- Workers are treated with dignity and respect √ as businesses view them as
valuable assets and not just as workers. √
- Covers all employees at the workplace √ if both parties meet all the
necessary safety provisions in the Act. √
- Creates a framework for acceptable employment practices √ and safety
regulations. √
- Supply administrative guidelines/mechanisms √ for dealing with/processing
claims. √
- Employees are compensated financially for any injury/disability √ resulting
from performing their duties at their workplace. √
- In the event of the death of an employee as a result of a work-related
accident/disease, √ his/her dependent(s) will receive financial support. √
- Employees receive medical assistance √ provided there is no other medical
assistance option/Cannot claim medical assistance from the fund and
medical aid. √
- Medical expenses/Other types of compensation are paid to employees
and/or their families √ depending on the type/severity of the injuries. √
- Employers have to pay a monthly amount to the Compensation Fund √
depending on the number of employees/the level of risk they are exposed
to. √
Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of COIDA
on businesses.
AND/OR
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Negative/Disadvantages
- Claiming processes √ can be time consuming. √
- Military workers √ are not covered. √
- Workers who are temporarily/permanently employed in foreign countries √
are not covered. √
- Employers may be forced to pay heavy penalties √ if they are found guilty
of negligence/not enforcing safety measures. √
- Implementation processes/procedures required by the Act √ may be
expensive. √
- Procedures required by this Act may be costly √ as paperwork places an
extra administrative burden on businesses. √
- Employers make annual contributions to COIDA, √ which may result in cash
flow problems. √
Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of
COIDA on businesses. Max (6)
4.5 Ways in which businesses can deal with the challenges posed by the
social factors
- Sell substitute products at lower prices due to low levels of income
distribution/Employ people from local community. √√
- Learn local languages/indigenous languages/Hire employees who are well
conversant with the local language. √√
- Work together with community police forums and improve security in the
business. √√
- Businesses must be well conversant with the demands/trends of their
customers. √√
- Develop/produce/incorporate/innovate new products that aim to address the
lifestyle attitude/trends of customers. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the ways in which businesses can deal with
the challenges posed by social factor of the PESTLE analysis.
Max (4)
BUSINESS OPERATIONS
4.6 Purpose of induction
- Introduce new employees to management/colleagues to establish
relationships with fellow colleagues at different levels. √√
- Give new employees a tour/information about the layout of the
building/office. √√
- Make new employees feel welcome by introducing them to their physical
workspace. √√
- Improve skills through in-service training. √√
- Familiarise new employees with the organisational structure/their
supervisors. √√
- Allow new employees the opportunity to ask questions that will put them at
ease/reduce insecurity/anxiety/fear. √√
- Create opportunities for new employees to experience/explore different
departments. √√
- Explain safety regulations and rules, so that new employees will understand
their roles/responsibilities in this regard. √√
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- Ensure that employees understand their roles/responsibilities so that they
will be more efficient/productive. √√
- Communicate information about the products/services offered by the
business. √√
- Communicate business policies regarding ethical/professional conduct/
procedures/employment contract/conditions of employment. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of induction.
Max (4)
4.7 Unemployment Insurance Fund/UIF as benefit required by law
- Employees are required to contribute 1% √ of their basic salary towards
UIF.√
- Employers are required to contribute 1% √ of an employee's basic salary
towards UIF. √
- Employers must pay unemployment insurance contributions of 2% directly
to UIF √ of the value of each worker's salary per month. √
- The fund also assists the dependants √ of a contributing worker who has
died. √
- The fund offers short-term financial assistance to workers √ when they
become unemployed or are unable to work due to illness, maternity or
adoption leave. √
- Contributions are paid √ to the Unemployment Insurance Fund (UIF)/
South African Revenue Services (SARS). √
Any other relevant answer related to UIF as a benefit required by law
Max (6)
4.8 TQM elements
4.8.1 TQM element from the scenario
Adequate financing and capacity √√ (2)
4.8.2 Benefits of a good quality management system
- Effective customer services are rendered, √ resulting in increased
customer satisfaction. √
- Time and resources √ are used efficiently. √
- Productivity increases √ through proper time management/using
high quality resources. √
- Products/Services are constantly improved √ resulting in
increased levels of customer satisfaction. √
- Vision/Mission/Business goals √ may be achieved. √
- A business has a competitive advantage √ over its competitors. √
- Regular training will continuously improve √ the quality of
employees' skills/knowledge/competencies. √
- Employers and employees will have a healthy working
relationship √ resulting in happy/productive workers/improved
employee morale/productivity. √
- Increased market share/financial stability √ as more customers
improve profitability. √
- Improves business image √ as there are less defects/returns. √
Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of a good quality
management system. Max (4)
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4.9 Role of quality circles as part of continuous improvement to processes
and systems
- Solve problems related to quality and implement improvements. √√
- Investigate problems and suggest solutions to management. √√
- Ensure that there is no duplication of activities/tasks in the workplace. √√
- Make suggestions for improving processes and systems in the
workplace.√√
- Improve the quality of products/services/productivity through regular
reviews of quality processes. √√
- Monitor/Reinforce strategies to improve the smooth running of
business operations. √√
- Increase employees' morale/motivation to boost the team spirit in achieving
organisational goals. √√
- Contribute towards the improvement and development of the
organisation.√√
- Reduce costs of redundancy and wasteful efforts in the long run. √√
- Increase the demand for products/services of the business. √√
- Create harmony and high performance in the workplace. √√
- Build a healthy workplace relationship between the employer and
employee.√√
- Improve employees' loyalty/commitment to the organisational goals. √√
- Improve employees' communication at all levels of the business. √√
- Develop a positive attitude/sense of involvement in decision-making
processes of the services offered. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the role of quality circles as part of
continuous improvement to processes and systems.
Max (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 4 MARKS
4.1 2
4.2 4
4.3.1 2
4.3.2 2
4.4 6
4.5 4
4.6 4
4.7 6
4.8.1 2
4.8.2 4
4.9 4
TOTAL 40
TOTAL SECTION B: 80
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SECTION C
Mark the answers to the FIRST question only.
QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (LEGISLATION)
5.1 Introduction
- The Employment Equity Act gives businesses the opportunity to create
acceptable employment practices to correct inequalities of the past. √
- Businesses that implement the EEA will benefit from improved and greater
transformation processes in the workplace. √
- The requirements stated in the EEA compels businesses to align all the
employment policies and procedures appropriately. √
- The Act stipulates bodies that are responsible for monitoring of compliance
and impose punitive measures for non-compliance. √
Any other relevant introduction related to the purpose of the EEA/impact of EEA
on businesses/ways in which businesses can comply with the EEA/penalties
for non-compliance with the EEA.
Any (2 x 1) (2)
5.2 Purpose of the Employment Equity Act/EEA
- The EEA allows employees who do the same work to be paid equally. √√
- Eliminates discrimination on grounds of gender/race/disability in the
workplace. √√
- Promotes equal opportunity and fair treatment in the workplace. √√
- Promotes diversity in the workplace by ensuring that people of diverse
backgrounds are appointed. √√
- Protects employees from victimisation if they exercise the rights given to
them by the EEA. √√
- Ensures equal representation in the workplace through the implementation
of affirmative action. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of the EEA.
Max (10)
5.3 Impact of the Employment Equity Act/EEA on businesses
Positives/Advantages
- Encourages consultation √ between employer and employees. √
- Treat employees fairly √ and promote/provide equal opportunities in the
workplace. √
- Impacts positively √ on BEE ratings for businesses. √
- Appointment process is clearly defined √, so all parties are well informed. √
- Motivates employees because the workforce √ is more diverse/
representative/inclusive. √
- Motivates employees because everyone has √ the same employment
opportunities. √
- Promotes the implementation of affirmative action measures √ to redress
the imbalances in employment. √
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- Provides employees with legal recourse √ if they have been unfairly
discriminated against. √
- Provides all employees with an equal opportunity √ to be selected/
appointed/promoted in a position. √
- Prevents unfair discrimination √ as it ensures that the workforce represents
the demographics of the country. √
- Creates a framework √ of acceptable employment practices/affirmative
action measures. √
- Encourages diversity in business √ by employing people from various racial
backgrounds. √
- Businesses are in a better position √ to negotiate contracts with the
government. √
- Certified psychometric tests may be used √ to assess applicants/employees
to ensure that they are suitable for the vacancy. √
Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of the EEA
on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Increased administration burden √, as businesses must compile/submit
employment equity reports every two years. √
- Expensive to train/employ someone √ who knows little about the Act. √
- Other groups may not respect the knowledge/skills/experience of an EEA
appointment √ and may lead to conflict. √
- Fines/Penalties for non-compliant businesses √ may be expensive for the
business. √
- Employers have to appoint one or more senior managers to ensure the
implementation of the plan √, which increases salary expenditure. √
- Skilled people from designated groups may demand higher salaries √ which
increase salary expenses. √
- Job hopping of skilled/trained EEA appointees √ may increase staff
turnover.√
- Diversity in the workplace √ may lead to conflict/unhappiness. √
- Businesses must submit a compliance certificate √ before they can conduct
business with state businesses. √
- Businesses are sometimes pressurised to appoint an unsuitable person √
to meet EEA requirements. √
- Often positions go unfilled √ because there are no suitable EEA
candidates.√
Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of the
EEA on businesses.
Max (14)
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5.4 Ways in which businesses can comply with the Employment Equity
Act/EEA
- Businesses should guard √ against discriminatory appointments. √
- Assess the racial composition of all employees, √ including senior
management. √
- Ensure that there is equal representation of all racial groups √ in every level
of employment. √
- Clearly define the appointment process, √ so that all parties are well
informed.√
- Ensure that diversity/inclusivity in the workplace √ is achieved. √
- Prepare an employment equity plan √ in consultation with employees. √
- Compile employment equity plans √ that indicate how they will implement
affirmative action. √
- Ensure that affirmative action measures √ promote diversity in the
workplace.√
- Implement the employment equity plan √ as required by the act. √
- Implement affirmative action measures √ to redress disadvantages
experienced by designated groups √ /Accommodate people from different
designated groups. √
- Submit the employment equity plan √ to the Department of Labour. √
- Assign one or more senior managers √ to ensure implementation and
monitoring of the employment equity plan. √
- Eliminate barriers √ that have an adverse impact on designated groups. √
- Regularly report to the Department of Labour √ on progress in implementing
the plan. √
- Display a summary of the Act √ where employees can clearly see/have
access to the document. √
- Conduct medical/psychological tests fairly √ to employees/when deemed
necessary. √/Use certified psychometric tests to assess applicants/
employees √ to ensure that suitable candidates are appointed. √
- Ensure that the workplace represents the demographics of the country √ at
all levels. √
- Restructure/Analyse current employment policies/practices/procedures √ to
accommodate designated groups. √
- Retrain/Develop/Train designated groups √ through skills development
programmes. √
- Employees must be paid equal √ for work of equal value. √
Any other relevant answer related to ways in which businesses can comply with
the EEA.
Max (12)
5.5 Penalties for non-compliance with the Employment Equity Act/EEA
- Labour inspectors may conduct onsite visits, to interview employees which
can create a bad image for the business. √√
- A compliance order may be issued to businesses that do not comply with the
EEA. √√
- Businesses may be brought before the Labour Court if compliance orders are
not adhered to/no efforts made to reach targets. √√
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- Labour inspectors may investigate/inspect/ask questions about
complaints.√√
- Businesses may face heavy fines for non-compliance. √√
- They can be ordered to pay compensation and damages to the employee. √√
- The Department of Labour may block non-compliant companies from doing
business with the government. √√
- The labour Inspector could issue a compliance order to businesses to stop
operating should they be found guilty of illegal practices. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the penalties for non-compliance with the
EEA.
Max (10)
5.6 Conclusion
- Businesses that implement the EEA enjoy a balanced workforce and fair
representation which portrays the demographics of the community in which
the business operates. √√
- The EEA affords businesses access to the skills and expertise by employing
people from various backgrounds. √√
- Businesses that comply with the EEA have preferential treatment by
government institutions regarding the awarding of tenders. √√
- Penalties for non-compliance with the Act may have a negative financial
implication for businesses. √√
Any other relevant conclusion related to the purpose of the EEA/impact of EEA
on businesses/ways in which businesses can comply with the EEA/penalties
for non-compliance with the EEA.
Any (1 x 2) (2)
[40]
QUESTION 5: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Purpose of the EEA 10
Impact of the EEA on businesses 14
Ways in which businesses can Max
12
comply with the EEA 32
Penalties for non-compliance with
10
the EEA
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis/Interpretation 2 8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
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QUESTION 6: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (HUMAN RESOURCES FUNCTION)
6.1 Introduction
- An accurate recruitment procedure enables businesses to appoint suitable
candidates who meet the needs of the identified position. √
- Businesses prefer internal recruitment methods as they provide existing
employees with the opportunity to grow and showcase the skills they have
acquired. √
- The interviewer should have a comprehensive understanding of the
interview process to ensure the necessary planning arrangements before
the interview.√
- Businesses are guided by laws on drawing up the legal requirements of the
employment contract.√
Any other relevant introduction related to the recruitment procedure/impact of
internal recruitment/ role of interviewer before the interview/legal requirements
of an employment contract.
Any (2 x 1) (2)
6.2 Recruitment procedure
- The human resource manager should evaluate the job/prepare a job
analysis, that includes the job specification/job description in order to
identify recruitment needs. √√
- The human resource manager (HRM) should prepare the job description in
order to determine the responsibility/key performance areas related to the
nature of the job. √√
- Human resources manager (HRM) should indicate the job
specification/description/key performance areas to attract suitable
candidates. √√
- Choose the method of recruitment, such as internal/external, to reach/target
the suitable applicants/candidates. √√
- Vacancies can be internally advertised via internal email/word of mouth/staff
notices. √√
- If internal recruitment is unsuccessful, external recruitment should be
considered. √√
- If the external recruitment is chosen/done, the relevant recruitment sources
should be selected, such as recruitment agencies/tertiary
institutions/newspapers. √√
- An advertisement should be prepared with the relevant information, such as
the name of the company, contact details, contact person. √√
- Place the advertisement in the appropriate media that will ensure that the
best candidates apply. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the recruitment procedure as a human
resource activity.
NOTE: The procedure may be in any order.
Max (10)
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6.3 Impact of internal recruitment on businesses
Positives/Advantages
- Cheaper/Quicker to fill the post √ as this method focuses on promoting
existing employees. √
- Placement is easy, √ as management knows the employees' skills/
personality/experience/strengths. √
- Provides opportunities for career paths √ within the business. √
- The employee already understands how the business operates, √ induction/
training is not always necessary. √
- Reduces the chances of losing employees, √ as future career prospects are
available. √
- Detailed, reliable information can be obtained √ from the supervisors/
employee records. √
Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of internal
recruitment on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Current employees may not bring/Close the door to/new ideas √ into the
business/from outsiders. √
- Promoting a current employee may cause resentment √ amongst other
employees. √
- Promotion may disrupt business operations √ as it creates open vacancies
that need to be filled. √
- The number of applicants is limited √ to current staff only. √
- Employees who do not really have the required skills for the new job √ may
be promoted. √
- Current employees may need to be trained/developed √ before they can be
promoted, which can be expensive. √
- Staff that is not promoted may feel demotivated √ which may hamper
productivity. √
Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of
internal recruitment on businesses.
Max (14)
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6.4 Role of the interviewer before the interview
- Book and prepare √ the venue for the interview. √
- Inform all shortlisted candidates √ about the date and place of the
interview.√
- Set the interview date √ and ensure that all interviews take place on the
same date, if possible. √
- Notify all panel members conducting the interview √ about the date and
place of the interview. √
- The interviewer should develop a core set of questions √ based on the
skills/knowledge/ability required. √
- Check/read the application/verify the CV of every candidate √ for anything
that may need to be explained. √
- Plan the programme for the interview √ and determine the time that should
be allocated to each candidate. √
- Allocate the same amount of time to interview √ each candidate on the
program. √
Any other relevant answer related to the role of the interviewer before the
interview.
Max (10)
6.5 Legal requirements of an employment contract
- The employer and employee/Both parties must sign the contract. √√
- Employer and employee must agree to any changes to the contract. √√
- No party may unilaterally change aspects of the employment contract. √√
- The remuneration package/including benefits must be clearly indicated. √√
- The employment contract may not contain any requirements that are in
conflict with the BCEA. √√
- Aspects of the employment contract can be renegotiated during the course
of employment. √√
- The employer must explain the terms and conditions of the employment
contract to the employee. √√
- Conditions of employment/duties/responsibilities of the employees must be
stipulated clearly. √√
- All business policies/procedures/disciplinary codes/rules must form part of
the employment contract. √√
- The employer must allow the employee to thoroughly read through the
contract before it is signed. √√
- The employment contract should include a code of conduct and code of
ethics. √√
Any other relevant answer related to the legal requirements of an employment
contract.
Max (12)
Copyright reserved Please turn over
Business Studies/P1 31 DBE/November 2025
NSC – Marking Guidelines
6.6 Conclusion
- The correct recruitment procedure enables businesses to compile a proper
job analysis that will be used to identify suitable candidates for the
vacancy. √√
- Internal recruitment may result in existing employees feeling valued when
they are considered for promotions. √√
- The success of the interview depends on the manner in which the
interviewer properly planned before the interview. √√
- Businesses can avoid legal actions by aligning their employment contracts
according to recent legislation. √√
Any other relevant conclusion related to the recruitment procedure/impact of
internal recruitment/role of interviewer before the interview/legal requirements
of an employment contract.
Any (1 x 2) (2)
[40]
QUESTION 6: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Recruitment procedure 10
Impact of internal recruitment 14
Role of the interviewer before the Max
10
interview 32
Legal requirements of an
12
employment contract
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis/Interpretation 2 8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 150
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