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Western Cape
Government
FOR YOU
Education
BUSINESS STUDIES
GRADE 12
s1otaT
“TIME: 2 HOURS
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Business Studies Grade 12 P1 Western Cape Prelim 2024 Memo
Grade 12 Business Studies Paper 1 memorandum from the Western Cape Prelim Exam 2024, 35 pages. Read online or download the free PDF.
Business Studies · Grade 12 · Western Cape Prelim Exam · 2024. Memorandum, 35 pages. Read online or download the PDF.
- Subject
- Business Studies
- Grade
- Grade 12
- Document type
- Memorandum
- Year
- 2024
- Exam period
- Western Cape Prelim Exam
- Paper
- 1
- Curriculum
- CAPS
- Pages
- 35
- File size
- 6.0 MB
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susiiesesounlesifrom Stanmorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION
Read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions.
4.
This question paper consists of THREE sections and covers TWO main topics.
SECTION A: COMPULSORY
SECTION B: Consists of THREE questions.
Answer any TWO of the THREE questions in this section.
SECTION C: Consists of TWO questions.
Answer any ONE of the TWO questions in this section.
Read the instructions for each question carefully and take note of what is required.
Note that ONLY the answers to the first TWO questions selected in SECTION B and the
answers to the FIRST question selected in SECTION C will be marked.
Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question
paper. NO marks will be awarded for answers that are numbered incorrectly.
Except where other instructions are given, answers must be written in full sentences.
Use the mark allocation and nature of each question to determine the length and depth of
an answer.
Use the table below as guide for mark and time allocation when answering each question.
SECTION QUESTION | MARKS TIME
eee 1 30 20 minutes
B: THREE directl/indirect-type 2 40
meee 3 40 70 minutes
Answer any TWO. 4 40
C: TWO essay-type questions 5 40
aaa ONE. 6 40 30 minutes
TOTAL 150 120 minutes
Begin the answer to EACH question on a NEW page, e.g. QUESTION 1 — new page,
QUESTION 2 — new page.
You may use a non-programmable calculator.
Write neatly and legibly.
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susesesounlesihfrom Stanmorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
SECTION A (COMPULSORY)
QUESTION 1
1.1. Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.
Choose the answer and write only the letter (A-D) next to the question number
(1.1.1-1.1.5) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.1.6 D.
1.1.1. Moonrise Industries complies with the ... by ensuring that employment
contracts meet the minimum required standards.
66 of 1995)
BCEA), 1997 (Act 75 of 1997)
B (Act 55 of 1998)
1.1.2 Busine: mpl i att “ing over competitors that
1.1.3. Fluctuations in foreign currency and high inflation rates form part of ...
challenges of PESTLE analysis.
A political
B environmental
Cc technological
D economic
1.1.4 The job specification of an available post includes ...
A knowledge, qualifications and duties.
B knowledge, skills and experience.
Cc responsibilities, duties and experience.
D responsibilities, job title and duties.
1.1.5 The quality indicators of the ... function of Qama Inventions include
providing regular positive press releases to all stakeholders and
implementing sustainable corporate social investment programmes.
A public relations
B marketing
Cc administration
D purchasing
(52) (10)
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susiesesounlesifrom Stanmorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
1.2
1.2.1
122
1.2.3
1.2.4
1.2.5
Complete the following statements by using the word(s) provided in the list below.
Write only the word(s) next to the question numbers (1.2.1 to 1.2.5) in the
ANSWER BOOK.
selection; Consumer Protection Act; threats; management; compulsory;
weaknesses; performance; fringe; National Credit Act; recruitment
The ... protects lenders and borrowers from negligent lending practices.
Environmental degradation and loadshedding are regarded as ... when compiling
a SWOT analysis.
Hlompho Textiles is obligated to make provision for the unemployment insurance
fund (UIF) as a ... benefit.
Screening forms part of the ... procedure as a human resources activity.
Goldstein Enterprises applies quality ... by measuring each department against
specified standards.
(5 = 2) (10)
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1.3
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susesesounlesihfrom Stanmorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
Choose a description from COLUMN B that matches a term in COLUMN A. Write
only the letter (A-J) next to the question number (1.3.1 to 1.3.5) in the ANSWER
BOOK..E.g. 1.3.6 K.
1.3.3 Micro environment
1.3.4 Internal recruitment
1.3.5 Total customer
satisfaction
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1.3.1. Black Economic A _ includes office notice boards, management
Empowerment referrals and the intranet
1.3.2, Liquidation B businesses as
s to learnerships
repay the debt of the
islation with which business
businesses have limited control over
challenges originating from this environment
selling all business assets to repay the debt
of the business
impacts positively on businesses as they
gain access to global markets
government policy that may not always be
enforced
includes printed media, electronic media and
the internet
businesses have full control over challenges
originating from this environment
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(5x 2)
TOTAL SECTION A:
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(10)
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Busihesasoumlesih from Stanmorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
SECTION B
Answer ANY TWO questions in this section.
NOTE: Clearly indicate the QUESTION NUMBER of each question you choose. The
answer to EACH question must start on a NEW page, e.g., QUESTION 2 on
a NEW page, QUESTION 3 on a NEW page.
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
24
2:2
2.3
2.4
2.5
Name the THREE types of business sectors. (3)
Outline the advantages of diversification strategies. (6)
Read the scenario below and answer the question that follows.
OKAVANGO HOTELS (OH)
Okavango Hotels has.applied a Porter's,Five Forces model to analyse their position in
the market environment. OH has assessed how clients who make bulk bookings can
negotiate for lower prices. They also determined whether their hotel services can be
easily replaced with cheaper alternatives.
Identify TWO forces of Porte is Five Forces model that are applicable to OH. Motivate
your answer by quoting from ithe scenario above.
Use the table below as a GUIDE to answer QUESTION 2.3.
PORTER’S FIVE FORCES MODEL MOTIVATIONS
ale
2. (6)
Explain the strategic management process. (6)
Recommend ways in which businesses can deal with the challenges posed
by social factors of the PESTLE analysis. (4)
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susiesesounlesifrom Stanmorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
2.6
28
2.8
Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.
ROSEDALE HEALTHCARE (RH)
Rosedale Healthcare strives to implement the pillars of the Broad-Based Black
Economic Empowerment Act (BBBEE), 2003 (Act 53 of 2003) in the workplace.
Management control, ownership, entrepreneurial development and skills development
are embedded in the business operations of RH. RH is also aware of the actions
regarded as non-compliance according to the BBBEE.
2.6.1 Name THREE pillars of the Broad-Based Black Economic Empowerment Act
(BBBEE), 2003 (Act 53 of 2003) in the scenario above. (3)
2.6.2 Describe the actions regarded as non-compliance according to the BBBEE. (4)
Discuss parental leave as a provision of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act
(BCEA), 1997 (Act 75 of 1997). (4)
Advise businesses on the purpose of the Compensation for Occupational Injuries and
Diseases Amendment Act (COIDA), 1997 (Act 61 of 1997). (4)
[40]
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QUESTION 3: BUSINESS OPERATIONS
3.1
3.2
3.3
3.4
3.5
3.6
3.7
3.8
State the TWO salary determination methods.
Outline the reasons for the termination of employment contracts.
Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.
TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
LUTHO COMPUTING (LC)
Lutho Computing has provided new employees with a tour of the physical work
environment. LC has also conducted training on policies and procedures with new
candidates.
3.3.1 Identify the human resources activity implemented by LC in the scenario
above.
3.3.2 Explain other benefits of this human resources activity (based on your answer
in QUESTION 3.3.1) for LC.
Evaluate the impact of external recruitment on businesses.
Name any TWO components of the PDCA model.
Elaborate on the meaning of quality assurance.
Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.
RIETFONTEIN MANUFACTURING (RM)
Rietfontein Manufacturing can afford to purchase high quality raw materials and
equipment. RM modifies their interventions to improve the efficient use of resources.
They are also researching the impact of total quality management (TQM) if poorly
implemented by businesses.
3.7.1 Identify TWO total quality management (TQM) elements applicable to RM.
Motivate your answer by quoting from the scenario above.
Use the table below as a GUIDE to answer QUESTION 3.7.1.
TQM ELEMENTS MOTIVATIONS
hD]=
3.7.2 Discuss the impact of total quality management (TQM) if poorly implemented
by businesses.
Advise businesses on the importance of quality circles as part of continuous
improvement to processes and systems.
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(2)
(6)
(2)
(4)
(6)
(2)
(4)
(6)
(4)
(4)
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QUESTION 4: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
4.1
4.2
4.3
Name any FOUR consumer rights as stipulated in the Consumer Protection Act
(CPA), 2008 (Act 68 of 2008).
Outline the difference between market development and product development as
types of intensive strategies.
Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.
TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
AZILE ARCHITECTURE (AA)
Azile Architecture is in the process ofevaluating their business strategy. AA compared
the expected performance with the actual performance. The management of AA have
implemented business strategies aimed at improving employee performance. AA also
drew up a table of the ue and advantages of their implemented strategy.
4.3.1 Quote TWO steps in oreo evaluation applied by AA.
4.3.2 Explain other steps in strategy evaluation that could be applied by AA.
4.4 Advise businesses on the impact of the Skills Development Act (SDA), 1998 (Act 97
of 1998).
BUSINESS OPERATIONS
4.5 List any TWO aspects of an employment contract.
4.6 Outline the placement procedure as a human resources activity.
4.7 Describe the role of the interviewer during the interview.
4.8 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.
SALMAAN LOGISTICS (SL)
Salmaan Logistics effectively communicates the vision, mission and values of the
business with all stakeholders. SL therefore successfully derives the benefits of a good
quality management system.
4.8.1 Identify the business function that contributes to the success of SL in the
scenario above.
4.8.2 Discuss the benefits of a good quality management system.
4.9 Recommend ways in which total quality management (TQM) can reduce the cost of
quality.
TOTAL SECTION B
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(4)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(6)
(2)
(4)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(4)
[40]
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Busihesasounlesih from Stanmorepteysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
SECTION C
Answer ANY ONE question in this section.
NOTE:
Clearly indicate the QUESTION NUMBER of the chosen question.
The answer to EACH question must start on a NEW page, e.g
QUESTION 5 on a NEW page OR QUESTION 6 on a NEW page.
QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (LEGISLATION)
The purposeyof the Employment Equity Act (EEA), 1998 (Act 55 of 1998) must be
understood by businesses “as it directly impacts on their operations. Businesses
should be aware’ of the commences for non-compliance and also make all the
necessary efforts to comply wit th the EEA.
Write an essay on ‘the E Employment Equity Act (EEA) in which you include the
following aspects:
Outline the purpose of the Employment Equity Act.
Explain the impact of the EEA on businesses.
Discuss the consequences for non-compliance with the EEA.
Suggest ways in which businesses can comply with the EEA.
[40]
QUESTION 6: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (HUMAN RESOURCES FUNCTION)
The recruitment procedure is a human resources activity that must be completed to
fill vacant posts. Interviews provide deeper insight into understanding the character
of new recruits. Businesses are required to be knowledgeable about the impact of
fringe benefits on their activities. They also need to understand the implication of the
Labour Relations Act (LRA), 1995 (Act 66 of 1995) on the human resources function.
Write an essay on the human resources function in which you include the following
aspects:
Outline the recruitment procedure as a human resources activity.
Explain the purpose of an interview.
Discuss the impact of fringe benefits on businesses.
Advise businesses on the implication of the LRA on the human resources
function.
[40]
TOTAL SECTIONC [40]
GRAND TOTAL [150]
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4¢| Western Cape
SY | Government
FOR YOU
Education
WESTERN CAPE
EDUCATION DEPARTMENT
BUSINESS STUDIES
GRADE 12
TRIAL EXAMINATION
This marking guideline consists of 25 pages.
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BUSINESSES de dArromR BikEnNtorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
NOTES TO MARKERS
PREAMBLE
The notes to markers are provided for quality assurance purposes to ensure the following:
(a) Fairness, consistency and reliability in the standard of marking
(b) Facilitate the moderation of candidates' scripts at the different levels
(c) Streamline the marking process considering the broad spectrum of markers across
the country
(d) Implement appropriate measures in the teaching, learning and assessment of the subject
at schools/institutions of learning
1. For marking and moderation purposes, the following colours are recommended:
Marker: Red
Senior Marker: Green
Deputy Chief Marker: Orange
Chief Marker: Pink
Internal Moderator: Black/Blue
DBE Moderator: Turquoise
a Candidates' responses must be in full sentences for SECTIONS B and C.
However, this would depend on the nature of the question.
3. A comprehensive marking guideline has been provided but this is by no means
exhaustive. Due consideration should be given to an answer that is correct but:
e Uses a different expression from that which appears in the marking
guideline
Comes from another credible source
Original
A different approach is used
NOTE: There is only ONE correct answer in SECTION A.
4. Take note. of other responses provided by candidates, that are relevant within
the context) of a particula estion, and allocate marks accordingly. (In cases
where the answer f r indicates some understanding, part-marks should
be awarded, for e mark instead of the maximum of two marks.)
or sub-q
facilitate the allocation of marks within a question
oh wl
6. The-pirpieeilteireligear s (guided by 'max' in the breakdown of marks) on
the right-hand side is to ensure consistency and accuracy in the marking of
scripts as well as for calculation and moderation purposes.
Mes Subtotals to questions must be written in the right-hand margin. Circle the sub-
totals as indicated by the allocation of marks. This must be guided by 'max' in
the marking guidelines. Only the total for each question should appear in the left-
hand margin next to the appropriate question number.
8. In an indirect question, the theory as well as the response must be relevant and
related to the question.
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BUSINES Sanwaltée de-duARionS Oenntorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
9. Correct numbering of answers to questions or sub questions is recommended in
SECTIONS A and B. However, if the numbering is incorrect, follow the sequence
of the candidate's responses. Candidates will be penalised if the latter is not
clear.
10. No additional credit must be given for repetition of facts. Indicate with an 'R'.
11. The differentiation between ‘evaluate’ and ‘critically evaluate' can be explained
as follows:
11.1 When 'evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond in either a
positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and negative)
stance, e.g. Positive: 'CO/DA eliminates time and costs spent’ on
lengthy civil court proceedings.'/
11.2. When ‘critically evaluate' is used, candidates»are
in either a positive/negative manner or take a
ative) stance. In this instance
their responses with more depth, e. g.
spent/ on lengthy civil court proceedingsv , ause the employer will
not be liable for compensation Bernard com r injuries sustained
during working hours as long as it can be proved that the business was
not negligent.'V
xpected to respond
NOTE: 1. The above could apply to 'analyse' as well.
2. Note the placing of the tick (/) in the allocation of marks.
12. The allocation of marks must be informed by the nature of the question, cognitive
verb used, mark allocation in the marking guideline and the context of each ques-
tion.
Cognitive verbs, such as:
124 Advise, name, state, outline, motivate, recommend, suggest, (list not ex-
haustive) do not usually require much depth in candidates’ responses.
Therefore, the mark allocation for each statement/answer appears at the
end.
12.2 Define, describe, explain, discuss, elaborate, distinguish, differentiate,
compare, tabulate, analyse, evaluate, critically evaluate (list not exhaus-
tive) require a greater depth of understanding, application and reason-
ing. Therefore, the marks must be allocated more objectively to ensure
that assessment is conducted according to established norms so that
uniformity, consistency and fairness are achieved.
13. Mark only the FIRST answer where candidates offer more than one answer for
SECTION B and C questions that require one answer.
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BUSINESSES de dArromR BikEnNtorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
14. SECTION B
14.1 If for example, FIVE facts are required, mark the candidate's FIRST FIVE re-
sponses and ignore the rest of the responses. Indicate by drawing a line across
the unmarked portion.
NOTE: 1. This applies only to questions where the number of facts is speci-
fied.
2. The above also applies to responses in SECTION C. (where appli-
cable)
14.2 If two facts are written in one sentence, award the candidate FULL credit. Point
14.1 above still applies.
14.3 If candidates are required to provide their own examples/views, brainstorm this
at the marking centre to finalise alternative answers and consult with the Internal
Moderator at DBE for approval.
14.4 Use of the cognitive verbs and allocation of marks:
14.4.1 If the number of facts are specified, questions that require candidates
to 'describe/discuss/explain' may be marked as follows:
e Fact 2 marks (or as indicated in the marking guide-
lines)
e Explanation 41 mark (two marks will be allocated in Section C)
The ‘fact’ and ‘explanation’ are given separately in the marking guide-
line to facilitate me rk allocation.
14.4.2 ‘ifthe er Of facts required is not specified, the allocation of marks
orme by the nature of the question and the maximum mark
icon fal guideline.
14.5 ONE — may be awarded for answers that are easy to recall, requires
one-word answers or is quoted directly from a scenario/case study. This
applies to SECTIONS B and C in particular (where applicable).
15: SECTION C
15.1 The breakdown of the mark allocation for the essays is as follows:
Introduction Maximum:
Content .
: 32
Conclusion
Insight 8
TOTAL 40
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TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
15.2 Insight consists of the following components:
Layout/Structure | Is there an introduction, a body, and a conclusion? 2
Analysis and Is the candidate able to break down the question into 2
interpretation headings/subheadings/interpret it correctly to show under-
standing of what is being asked?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
All headings addressed: 1 (One 'A’)
Interpretation (16 to 32 marks): 1 (One ‘A’)
Synthesis Are there relevant decisions/facts/responses made based 2
on the questions?
Option1: Only relevant facts: 2 marks (No '-S')
Where a candidate answers 50%_or.more of
the question with only fale faci -S' ap-
pears in the | imum
of TW
Option 2: Some relevant: )
Where a candidal 50% of
the question with on facts;
one '-S' appears ard a
maximum of ONE (
Option 3: Some relevant i C
Where a candidate answers FOU sub-
question, but one/two/three sub-questions with
no relevant facts; one '-S' appears in the left
margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1) mark
for synthesis.
Option 4: No relevant facts: 0 marks (Two '-S')
Where a candidate answers less than 50%
(only one sub-question) of the questions with
no relevant facts; two '-S' appears in the left
margin. Award a ZERO mark synthesis.
Originality ls there evidence of one or two examples, not older than| 2
two (2) years that are based on recent information, current
trends and developments?
TOTAL FOR INSIGHT:| 8
TOTAL MARKS FOR FACTS:) 32
TOTAL MARKS FOR ESSAY (8 + 32):| 40
NOTE: 1. No marks will be awarded for contents repeated from the
introduction and conclusion.
2. The candidate forfeits marks for layout if the words
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not stated.
3. No marks will be awarded for layout, if the headings
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not supported by an
explanation.
15:3 Indicate insight in the left-hand margin with a symbol e.g. ('L, A, -S and/or 0’).
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15.4
15.5
15.6
15.7
15.8
15.9
15.10
15.11
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The breakdown of marks is indicated at the end of the suggested answer/
marking guideline to each question.
Mark all relevant facts until the SUBMAX/MAX mark in a subsection has been
attained. Write SUBMAX/MAX after maximum marks have been obtained, but
continue reading for originality “O”.
At the end of each essay indicate the allocation of marks for facts and marks
for insight as follows: (L — Layout, A — Analysis, S — Synthesis, O — Originality)
TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
as.in the table below.
CONTENT MARKS
Facts 32 (max.)
L 2
A 2
Ss 2
[e} 2
TOTAL 40
icts, take note of the submaximal indicated, espe-
ke use of the same subheadings. Remember,
are encouraged and contribute to insight
Uencing) and indicate clarity of thought. (See
nd of each question.)
rprets the question INCORRECTLY, then he/she
may-still , ut.
If a different approach is used by candidates, ensure that the answers are as-
sessed according to the mark allocation/subheadings as indicated in the mark-
ing guideline.
15.10.1 | Award TWO marks for complete sentences. Award ONE mark for
phrases, incomplete sentences and vague answers.
15.10.2 With effect from November 2015, the TWO marks will not neces-
sarily appear at the end of each completed sentence. The ticks (/)
will be separated and indicated next to each fact, e.g. ‘Product de-
velopment is a growth strategy V, where businesses aim to introduce
new products into existing markets.'V
This will be informed by the nature and context of the question, as
well as the cognitive verb used.
With effect from November 2017, the maximum of TWO (2) marks for facts
shown as headings in the marking guidelines, will not necessarily apply to each
question. This would also depend on the nature of the question.
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BUSINERSTWAS Ge-asronn Bikeuntorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
SECTION A
QUESTION 1
14 1.1.1 CVV
VATA VV
4,.1.3-D VV
1.14 BYV
1.1.5 AVY
(5x2) (10)
(5x2) (10)
13.5 GVV
(5x2) (10)
TOTAL SECTION A: 30
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 1 MARKS
1.1 10
1.2 10
1.3 10
TOTAL 30
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SECTION B
TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
Mark the FIRST TWO answers only.
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
2.1. Types of business sectors
- Primary sector /
- Secondary sector /
- Tertiary sector /
NOTE: Mark the first THREE (3) only.
(3 x 1) (3)
2.2 Advantages of diversification strategies
- Increases salesireven me and business growth. //
: \d/image/brand awareness of the business. / /
only on one product for sales/revenue/income. //
nological capabilities through product modification. VV
different product lines during times of fluctuating economic
- Sustained
activities.
- Business or
facture more products. mrs
- Enables businesses to retain their competitive advantage by meeting the needs of cur-
rent/new customers/expanding into new unexplored markets. / /
- Allows businesses to remain relevant/functional/operational in a dynamic business envi-
ronment. //
- Establish additional markets in unrelated markets/industries. /V
- Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of diversification strategies.
Max (6)
utput using less inputs as one factory may be used to manu-
2.3 Porter’s Five Forces model from the scenario
PORTER’S FIVE FORCES MODEL
MOTIVATIONS
1. Bargaining power of buyers/
Power of buyers /V
OH has assessed how clients who make
bulk bookings can negotiate for lower
prices. /
2. Threat of substitution/substitutes V /
They also determined whether their hotel
services can be easily replaced with
cheaper alternatives. /
Submax (4) Submax (2)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. The answer does not have to be in tabular format.
3. Award marks for the forces of Porter’s Five Forces model even if the
quotes are incomplete.
4. Do not award marks for motivations if the forces of Porter’s Five
Forces model were incorrectly identified.
Max (6)
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BUSINESSES de dArromR BikEnNtorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
2.4 Strategic management process
OPTION 1
Businesses should have V a clear vision, mission statement/measurable/realistic objec-
tives in place. /
Identify opportunities/weaknesses/strengths/threats V by conducting environmental
scanning/situational analysis. /
Tools available for environmental scanning may include “ a SWOT analysis/Porter's Five
Forces model/PESTLE analysis/industrial analysis tools. /
Formulate alternative strategies V to respond to the challenges. /
Develop (an) action plan(s), V including the tasks to be done/deadlines to be met/ re-
sources to be procured. /
Implement selected strategies “ by communicating it to all stakeholders/ organising busi-
ness resources/motivating staff. /
Continuously evaluate/monitor/measure strategies V in order to take corrective action. V
Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.
OR
OPTION 2
Businesses should review/analyse/re-examine V their vision/mission statement. /
Conduct an environmental analysis / using models such as SWOT/PESTLE/Porter's
Five Forces. /
Formulate a strategy, V such as a defensive/retrenchment strategy. V
Implement a strategy, V using a template such as an action plan. V
Control/Evaluate/Monitor the implemented strategy V to identify gaps/deviations in imple-
mentation. /
Take corrective action V to ensure goals/objectives are met. V
Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.
Max (6)
2.5 Ways in which businesses can deal with challenges posed by the social factors
Sell substitute products at lower prices due to low levels of income distribution/Employ
people from the local ic unity. VV
Learn local/indigen S languages/hire employees who are well conversant with the lo-
“customers. //
inity police forums and improve security in the business. / /
Develop/prodi ncorporate/innovate new products that aim to address the lifestyle atti-
g ustomers. V v
1S\ WeFtelated to ways in which businesses can deal with challenges
posed by social factors of the PESTLE analysis.
Max (4)
2.6 Pillars and non-compliance of BBBEE
2.6.1 Pillars of BBBEE from the scenario
Management control /
Ownership /
Skills Development /
NOTE: Mark the first THREE (3) only.
(3 x 1) (3)
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2.6.2 Actions regarded as non-compliance according to the BBBEE
Employers who incorrectly implement / the means to achieve the requirements of the
five BBBEE pillars. /
Employers who fail to correctly implement affirmative action V in the context of employ-
ment equity to meet BBBEE responsibilities. V
Employers who promote unsuitable people into management positions / at the expense
of qualified previously disadvantaged people. /
Employers who are deliberately involved in fronting/corruption/nepotism/cronyism, / and
because of this, certain individuals benefit at the expense of other individuals. /
Refusing to award government tenders V to BBBEE-compliant vendors. /
Any other relevant answer related to actions regarded as non-compliance according to
the BBBEE.
Max (4)
2.7 _ Parental leave as a provision of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act/BCEA
An employee irrespective of gender, who is a parent, is entitled to 10 consecutive days
parental leave V after the birth of his/her child. /
Parental leave is unpaid / but the employee/parent may claim from the Unemployment
Insurance Fund/UIF. /
The employer must be informed/notified V at least one month before the expected due
date of birth. V
Adoption leave applies to the adoption of a child V below the age of 2 years. /
One parent of the adopted child is entitled to 10 weeks of adoption leave to take care of
the child, V while the other parent is entitled to 10 consecutive days normal parental
leave.
Commissioning parental leave is only applicable to surrogate motherhood / where one
parent is entitled to 10 weeks commissioning parental leave to take care of the child, /
while the other parent is entitled to 10 consecutive days normal parental leave. /
Any other relevant answer related to parental leave as a provision of the BCEA.
Max (4)
2.8 Purpose of the Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases Amendment
Act/COIDA
Provides comprehensive protection to employees who get injured/contract diseases in
the course of performing their duties. / /
COIDA applies to all casual/full-time workers who become ill/injured/ disabled/die due to
a workplace accident/dis J.
It excludes workers who. y of wilful misconduct/workers working outside South
Africa for at least q isimembers of the SA Defence Force/Police services. / /
It provides fort tablis at of a Compensation Board whose function is to advise
the Minister of on the application/provisions of COIDA. VY
Medical exp er types © compensation are paid to employees and/or their fami-
lies dependin e type/severity of the injuries. VV
Employers have to pay a mont ly amount to the Compensation Fund depending on the
number of employees/the level of risk they are exposed to. V/V
Provides compensation for employees/families for injuries or death occurred while carry-
ing out their duties. //
Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of COIDA.
Max (4)
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BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 2 | MARKS
2.1 3
2.2 6
2.3 6
2.4 6
2.5 4
2.6.1 3
2.6.2 4
2:7 4
2.8 4
TOTAL 40
QUESTION 3: BUSINESS OPERATIONS
3.1. Salary determination methods
- Piecemeal /
- Time-related /
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
(2 x 1) (2)
3.2 Reasons for the termination of an employment contract
The employer may dismiss an employee for a valid reason(s), such as unsatisfactory job
performance/misconduct. //
Employer may no longer have work for redundant employees/cannot fulfil the contract/is
restructuring. VV
The employer may retrench some employees due to insolvency/may not be able to pay
the employees. //
Employees decided to leave/resign voluntarily for better job opportunities. /V
An employee may have reached the pre-determined age for retirement. /V
Incapacity to work due to illness/injuries. //
By a mutual agreement between the employer and employee. //
The duration of the employment contract expires/comes to an end. //
Any other relevant answer related to the reasons for the termination of an employment
contract.
Max (6)
3.3. Human resources activities
3.3.1. Human resources activity from the scenario
Induction /V
NOTE: DO NOT award marks for any other human resources activity.
Max (2)
3.3.2 Benefits of induction for businesses
Allows new employees to settle in quickly / and work effectively. /
Ensures that new employees understand rules / and restrictions in the business. /
New employees may establish relationships V with fellow employees at different
levels. V
Make new employees feel at ease in the workplace, V which reduces anxiety/ insecu-
rity/fear. /
The results obtained during the induction process V provide a base for focussed
training. V
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Increases quality of performance/productivity “ which promotes the effective use of
working methods/resources. /
Minimises/Decreases the need for on-going training V and development. /
Employees will be familiar with organisational structures, V such as who are their super-
visors/low level managers. /
Opportunities are created for new employees V to experience/explore different depart-
ments. V
New employees will understand their role/responsibilities V concerning safety regulations
and rules. /
New employees will know the layout of the building/factory/offices/where everything is, V
which saves production time. V
Learn more about the business so that new employees understand V their roles/ respon-
sibilities in order to be more efficient. V
Company policies regarding conduct/procedures/safety and security/employment con-
tract/conditions of employment/working hours/leave V are communicated. /
Realistic expectations for new employees V as well as the business are created. /
New employees may feel part of the team V resulting in positive morale/motivation. /
Employees may have a better understanding of business policies / regarding ethi-
cal/professional conduct/procedures/CSR. /
Reduces staff turnover / as new employees have been inducted properly. /
Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of induction for businesses.
- NOTE: DO NOT allocate marks for quotations provided in the scenario.
Max (4)
3.4 Impact of external recruitment
Positives/Advantages
New candidates bring new talents/ideas/experiences/skills V into the business. /
There is a larger pool of candidates / from which to choose. /
It may help the business to meet V affirmative action/BBBEE targets. /
Minimises unhappiness/conflict amongst current employees / who may have applied for
the post. V
There is a better chance of getting a suitable candidate with the required skills/ qualifica-
tions/competencies V who does not need much training/development which reduce
costs. /
New employees may add value V to the overall efficiency/productivity of the business. /
Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of external recruit-
ment on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
Information on CV's/from referees / may notbe reliable.
Many unsuitable applications V can slow! down the t process. /
New candidates generally take longer toadjust 2 tt work environment. /
External sources can be expensive, / such as itmer it agencies’ fees/ advertise-
ments in newspapers/magazines. / tig
The selection process may not be effective pire in tent candidate may be cho-
sen. /
Recruitment process takes longer as background checks must be conducted/is time-con-
suming V due to the lengthy process of finding a suitable candidate.
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3.5
3.6
3.7
3.7.1
3.7.2
- In-service training may be needed V which decreases productivity during the time of
training. V
- External recruitment may limit promotion/growth opportunities V that could lead to re-
sentment amongst employees. /
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of external re-
cruitment on businesses.
Max (6)
Components of the PDCA model
- Plan/
- Dov
- Check/Analyse /
- Act/Act is needed /
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
(2 x 1) (2)
Meaning of quality assurance
- Checks carried out during V and after the production process. /
- Ensure that required standards have been met V at every stage of the process. /
- Processes put in place to ensure that the quality of products/services/systems adhere to
pre-set standards V with minimal defects/delays/short-comings. /
- Ensuring that every process is aimed to get the product “right the first time” / and pre-
vent mistakes from happening. /
- The ‘building in’ of quality “ as opposed to ‘checking of quality. V
- Any other relevant answer related to the meaning of quality assurance.
Max (4)
Total Quality Management/TQM
TQM elements from the scenario
TQM ELEMENTS MOTIVATIONS
1. Adequate financing and capacity VV Rietfontein Manufacturing can afford to pur-
chase high quality raw materials and equip-
ment. V
2. Monitoring and evaluation of quality RM modifies their interventions to improve
processes // the efficient use of resources. /
Submax (4) Submax (2)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. The answer does not have to be in tabular format.
3. Award marks for the steps of the TQM elements even if the motivations
were incomplete.
4. Do not award marks for the motivations if the TQM elements were in-
correctly identified.
Max (6)
Impact of total quality management/TQM if poorly implemented
- Setting unrealistic deadlines / that may not be achieved. /
- Employees may not be adequately trained V resulting in poor quality products. /
- Decline in productivity, “ because of stoppages. /
- Businesses may not be able to make necessary changes of products/services V to
satisfy the needs of customers. /
- Businesses’ reputation/image may suffer / because of poor quality/defective goods. /
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Customers will have many alternatives to choose from / and the impact could be dev-
astating to businesses. /
Investors might withdraw investment, V if there is a decline in profits. /
Decline in sales V as more goods are returned by unhappy customers. /
High staff turnover, V because of poor skills development. /
Undocumented/Uncontrolled quality control processes/systems V could result in
errors/deviations from pre-set quality standards. /
Any other relevant answer related to the impact of TQM if poorly implemented by
businesses.
Max (4)
3.8 Role of quality circles as part of continuous improvement to processes and systems
Solve problems related to quality and implement improvements. VV
Investigate problems and suggest solutions to management. //
Ensure that there is no duplication of activities/tasks in the workplace. //
Make suggestions for improving processes and systems in the workplace. / /
Improve the quality of products/services/productivity through regular reviews of quality
processes. ¥ Jv — 7 1
Monitor/Reinfo @)stratégies toimprove the smooth running of business operations. /V
tt plo ora ation to boost their spirit in achieving organisa-
Wi lality of work/workmanship. //
Contribute tow p i ) | id development of the organisation. / /
Reduce efforts in the long-run. //
Increase vices of the business. //
Create e in the workplace. /V
Build a-healthy workplace re p between the employer and employee. V/V
Improve employees’ loyalty and commitment to the organisational goals. / V
Improve employees’ communication at all levels of the business. /V
Develop a positive attitude/sense of involvement in decision-making processes of the
services offered. /V
Any other relevant answer related to the role of quality circles as part of continuous im-
provement to processes and systems.
Max (4)
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 3 | MARKS
3.1
3.2
3.3.1
3.3.2
3.4
3.5
3.6
3.7.1
3.7.2
3.8
TOTAL
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TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
QUESTION 4: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
4.1
4.2
4.3
Consumer rights in terms of the Consumer Protection Act/CPA
Right to choose /
Right to privacy V
Right to fair and honest dealings V
Right to disclosure and information /
Right to fair and responsible marketing V
Right to fair value/good quality and safety V
Right to accountability by suppliers V
Right to fair, just and reasonable terms and conditions V
Right to equality in the consumer market /
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only.
(4 x 1) (4)
Difference between market development and product development
MARKET DEVELOPMENT PRODUCT DEVELOPMENT
aims to sell its existing/current products
in new markets. /V
It is a growth strategy where a business | -
It is a growth strategy where a business
aims to introduce new products into ex-
isting/current markets. //
- The business implements the idea of
expanding/selling products in other geo-
graphical areas. /V
The business improves/enhances the
product line by adding different types of
related products/services. //
- The business finds new ways of distrib-
uting products. //
The business conducts test marketing/
market research to establish whether
new products will be accepted by exist-
ing customers. /V
- Prices are restructured/reviewed to ca-
ter to customers/consumers of all in-
come levels. /V
New products may be different/of a
higher quality than those of competitors.
vv
- Any other relevant answer related to
market development.
Any other relevant answer related to
product development.
Submax (2)
Submax (2)
NOTE: 1.
The answer does not have to be in tabular format.
2. The difference does not have to link, but must be clear.
3. Award a maximum of TWO (2) marks if the difference is not clear/Mark
either market development or product development only.
Max (4)
Steps in strategy evaluation
4.3.1 Steps in strategy evaluation from the scenario
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- AAcompared the expected performance with the actual performance. /
- AAalso drew up a table of the advantages and disadvantages of their implemented strat-
egy./
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. DO NOT award marks for quotes that are incomplete.
(2 x 1) (2)
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4.3.2 Steps in strategy evaluation
Examine the underlying basis / of a business strategy. V
Look forward and backwards V into the implementation process. /
Determine the reasons for deviations / and analyse these reasons. /
Take corrective action V so that deviations may be corrected. /
Set specific dates for control V and follow up. /
Decide on the desired outcome ¥ that will result in the achievement of business goals. /
Consider the impact of the strategic implementation V in the internal/external environ-
ments of the business. /
Any other relevant answer related to the steps in strategy evaluation.
NOTE: DO NOT allocate marks for responses quoted in QUESTION 4.3.1.
Max (4)
4.4 Impact of the Skills Development Act/SDA
Positives/Advantages
Increases the number of skilled employees in areas where these skills are scarce. //
Improves productivity in the workplace. / /
Business could become globally more competitive. VV
Increases investment in education and training in the labour market. //
Higher investment in education and training in the labour market increases profits/return
on investment. //
On-going skills development, learning and the acquisition of new skills are encouraged to
sustain the improvement of skills development. //
Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of the SDA on busi-
nesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
The SDA process is prescriptive and requires a large amount of paperwork and admin-
istration which can cost time and money. //
Skills Development Levy could be an extra burden to financially struggling
businesses. //
It may be monitored and controlled by government departments that do not have educa-
tion and training as their key priorities. /V
The SETAs may not be well organised and many courses offered by companies may not
have unit standards that relate to the course content. VV
iders that offer training services are not SAQA accredited. /V
sses may not support this government initiative. /V
le a of the SDA can be difficult to monitor and control. /V
Emplo cted to attend learnerships during work hours which could affect the
produ s/productivity. VV
P Sternorenhbe to employ a person to implement, manage and control learner-
ships. /V
The time and money spent on improving employee skills is wasted if they leave the busi-
ness. /V
Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of SDA on busi-
nesses.
Max (6)
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4.5 Aspects that should be included in an employment contract
Personal details of the employee. /
Details of the business/employer such as the name and address. /
Job title/Position. /
Job description such as duties/responsibilities and working conditions. V
Job specification such as formal qualifications and willingness to travel. /
Date of employment/Commencement of employment. /
Place where employee will spend most of his/her working time. /
Hours of work such as normal time and overtime. /
Remuneration such as weekly or monthly pay. /
Benefits/Fringe benefits/Perks/Allowances. /
Leave such as sick/maternity/annual/adoption leave. /
Employee deductions such as compulsory/non-compulsory. /
Duration/Period of employment contract/Details of termination/Expiry date of employment
contract. /
Probation period. /
Signatures of both the employer and employee. /
List of documents that form part of the contract such as appointment letter/code of con-
duct/ethics. /
Disciplinary policy such as rules/disciplinary procedure for unacceptable behaviour. /
Any other relevant answer related to aspects that should be included in an employment
contract.
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
(2 x 1) (2)
4.6 Placement procedure
Outline the specific responsibilities of the new position, including the expectations/skills
required for this position. VV
Determine the successful candidate's strengths/weaknesses/interests/skills by subjecting
him/her to a range of psychometric tests. / V
Determine the relationship between the position and the competencies of the new candi-
date. /V
Any other relevant answer related to the placement procedure as a human resources ac-
tivity.
. Max (4)
4.7 Role of the interviewer during the interview
Allocate the same amount of time V to each candidate. /
Introduce members of the interviewing panel V to each candidate/interviewee. /
Make the interviewee V feel at ease. /
Explain the purpose of the interview V to the panel and the candidate/inte ee. V
Record responses of candidates/interviewees V for future reference, ae
Do not misinform/mislead V the candidate/interviewee. / 7a
Provide an opportunity V for the interviewee to ask questions. a -
Close the interview / by thanking the interviewee for attending the
|
Pose the same set of questions V to all candidates/interviewees. i
Any other relevant answer related to role of the interviewer during the interview.
Max (4)
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4.8 Business functions that contributes to the success of the business and the benefits
of a good quality management system
4.8.1 Business function that contributes to the success of the business from the scenario
General management / /
(2)
4.8.2 Benefits of a good quality management system
Effective customer services are rendered V, resulting in increased customer
satisfaction. /
Time and resources V are used efficiently. /
Productivity increases V through proper time management/using high quality
resources. /
Products/Services are constantly improved V resulting in increased levels of customer
satisfaction. V
Vision/Mission/Business goals / may be achieved. /
A business has a competitive advantage V over its competitors. /
Regular training will continuously improve V the quality of employees' skills/knowledge./
Employers and employees will have a healthy working relationship V resulting in happy/
productive workers. /
Increased market share/financial sustainability as more customers improves profitabil-
ity. ¥
Improves business image V as there are less defects/returns. /
Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of a good quality management system.
Max (4)
4.9 Ways in which total quality management/TQM can reduce the cost of quality
Introduce quality circles to discuss ways of improving the quality of their work/work-
manship. //
Schedule activities to eliminate duplication of tasks. / /
Share responsibilities for quality output amongst management and workers. / /
Train employees at all levels, so that everyone understands their roles in quality man-
agement. //
Develop work systems that empower employees to find new ways of improving qual-
ity. VV
Work closely with suppliers to improve the quality of raw materials/inputs. /V
Improve communication about the quality challenges/deviations, so that everyone can
learn from past experiences. //
Reduce investment on expensive, but ineffective inspection procedures in the produc-
tion process. //
Implement pro-active maintenance programmes for equipment/machinery to re-
duce/eliminate breakdowns. / /
Any other relevant answer related to ways in which TQM can reduce the cost of qual-
ity.
. Max (4)
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TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 4 | MARKS
41 4
4.2 4
4.3.1 2
4.3.2 4
44 6
4.5 2
4.6 4
4.7 4
4.8.1 2
4.8.2 4
4.9 4
TOTAL 40
TOTAL SECTION B: 80
QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (LEGISLATION)
5.1
5.2
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Introduction
The Employment Equity Act was introduced to redress the economic imbalances of
the past/enable greater transformation in the workplace. /
Businesses need to make all the necessary efforts to gain the positive impact of this
act, and reduce the negative impact of this act on their business operations. /
Penalties for non-compliance refer to the legal charges businesses may face for not
complying with the EEA. /
Compliance refers to the ways/methods in which businesses can act in the legal ac-
cordance with the EEA. /
Businesses often implement the EEA in the workplace in order to prevent/reduce the
large penalties for non-compliance. /
Any other relevant introduction related to the purpose of the EEA/impact of the EEA
on businesses/consequences for non-compliance with the EEA/ways in which busi-
nesses can comply with the EEA.
Any (2 x 1) (2)
Purpose of the Employment Equity Act/EEA
The EEA allows employees who do the same work to be paid equally. /V
Eliminates discrimination on grounds of gender/race/disability i e,workplacé
Promotes equal opportunity and fair treatment in the workplace i
Promotes diversity in the workplace by ensuring that people of di
are appointed. /V
Protects employees from victimisation if they exercise the rights
EEA. /V =
Ensures equal representation in the workplace through the implementation of affirma-
tive action. V/V
Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of the EEA.
Git
Max (8)
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5.3
Impact of the Employment Equity Act/EEA on businesses
Positives/Advantages of the EEA
- Encourages consultation / between employer and employees. /
- Promotes equal opportunity V and fair treatment in the workplace. /
- Impacts positively V on BEE ratings for businesses. /
- Appointment process is clearly defined, V so all parties are well informed. /
- Motivates employees because the workforce V is more diverse/representative/ inclu-
sive. /
- Motivates employees because everyone has / the same employment opportunities. /
- Promotes the implementation of affirmative action measures V to redress the imbal-
ances in employment. /
- Provides employees with legal recourse V if they have been unfairly discriminated
against. /
- Provides all employees with an equal opportunity V to be selected/appointed/ pro-
moted in a position. V
- Prevents unfair discrimination V as it ensures that the workforce represents the de-
mographics of the country. /
- Creates a framework / of acceptable employment practices/affirmative action
measures. /
- Encourages diversity in business V by employing people from various racial back-
grounds. /
- Businesses are in a better position V to negotiate contracts with the government. /
- Certified psychometric tests may be used V to assess applicants/employees to ensure
that they are suitable for the vacancy. /
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of the EEA on
businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Increased administration burden, V as businesses must compile/submit employment
equity reports every two years. /
- Expensive to train/employ someone VY who knows little about the Act. V
- Other groups may not respect the knowledge/skills/experience of an EEA
appointment Y and may lead to conflict. /
- Fines/Penalties for non-compliant businesses V may be expensive for the business. /
- Employers have to appoint one or more senior managers to ensure the implementa-
tion of the plan, V which increases salary expenditure. /
- Skilled people from designated groups may demand higher salaries V which increase
salary expenses. /
- Job hopping of skilled/trained EE appointees V may increase staff turnover. /
- Diversity in the workplace / may lead to conflict/unhappiness. /
- Businesses must submit a compliance certificate V before they can conduct business
with state businesses. /
- Businesses are sometimes pressurised to appoint an unsuitable person / to meet
EEA requirements. /
- Often positions go unfilled because there are no suitable EEA candidates. /
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of the EEA on
businesses.
Max (16)
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5.4 Consequences for non-compliance
Businesses that do not comply with the EEA may receive a compliance order / from
the Labour Court that forces the business to comply with the EEA. /
Businesses that do still not comply after the compliance order has been issued / may
then be charged/prosecuted by the Labour Court for non-compliance. // Businesses
may be brought before the Labour Court V if compliance orders are not adhered to/no
efforts made to reach targets. /
Businesses who neglect to comply with the EEA may receive large fines, / which will
be dependent on the degree of non-compliance, especially in the context of fronting. /
The Department of Labour may prevent non-compliant businesses from conducting
business with the government, / especially in the context of government tenders. /
Labour inspectors may conduct onsite visits, re \to,interview employees which can cre-
ate a bad image for the business. / sd A
Labour inspectors can visit the business and conduct interviews with employees V to
determine whether the information supplied on the mployment equity plans is true or
has been falsified. V/Labour inspectors may investigate/ii /inspectlask questions ¥ about
complaints. /
The business can be ordered to pay V compensation and damages to the employee. /
Any other relevant answer related to the consequences for non-compliance with the EEA.
Max (10)
_ * |
5.5 Ways in which businesses can comply with the Employment Equity Act/EEA
Businesses should guard against discriminatory appointments. //
Assess the racial composition of all employees, including senior management. / /
Ensure that there is equal representation of all racial groups/demographics in every
level of employment. //
Clearly define the appointment process, so that all parties are well informed. /V
Ensure that diversity/inclusivity is achieved in the workplace. //
Prepare an employment equity plan in consultation with employees. / /
Compile employment equity plans that indicate how they will implement affirmative ac-
tion. /V
Ensure that affirmative action measures promote diversity in the workplace. / /
Implement the employment equity plan. VV
Implement affirmative action measures to redress disadvantages experienced by des-
ignated groups. /V
Submit the employment equity plan to the Department of Labour. //
Assign one or more senior managers to ensure implementation and monitoring of the
employment equity plan. /V
Eliminate barriers that have an adverse impact on designated groups. / /
Regularly report to the Department of Labour on progress in implementing the plan. /V
Display a summary of the Act where employees can clearly see/have access to the
document. /V
Conduct medical/psychological tests fairly to employees/when deemed necessary/ //
Use certified psychometric tests to assess applicants/employeesto ensure that suita-
ble candidates are appointed. /V
Ensure that the workplace represents the demographics of the country at all
levels. V/V
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BUSINES Sanwaltée de-duARionS Oenntorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
5.6
- Restructure/Analyse current employment policies/practices/procedures to accommo-
date designated groups. V/V
- Retrain/Develop/Train designated groupsthrough skills development programmes. //
- Employees must be paid equal for work of equal value. //
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which businesses can comply with the
EBA,
Max (12)
Conclusion
- The EEA promotes/regulates affirmative action and provides guidance in conducting
fair appointment processes. / /
- Businesses benefit from the EEA by providing access to workplace opportunities for
individuals of previously disadvantaged communities. /V
- Penalties for non-compliance with the EEA may have a negative financial implication
for businesses as it causes cash flow problems. / /
- Businesses need to ensure that employment policies and procedures are aligned with
the requirements of the EEA. /V
- Any other relevant conclusion related to the purpose of the EEA/impact of the EEA on
businesses/consequences for non-compliance with the EEA/ways in which businesses
can comply with the EEA.
Any (1 x 2) (2)
QUESTION 5: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM | TOTAL
Introduction 2
Purpose of the EEA 8
Impact of the EEA on businesses 16
Consequences for non-compli- 10 Max
ance with the EEA 32
Ways in which businesses can 12
comply with the EEA
Conclusion 4
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis/Interpretation 2 8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
LASO - For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
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BUSINEERAWwHiES dedson BikEHNtorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
QUESTION 6: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (HUMAN RESOURCES FUNCTION)
6.1
6.2
6.3
Introduction
- The success of a business is strongly influenced by sound recruitment processes ap-
plied by the human resources function. /
- Interviews are a critical human resources activity within the selection process as it pro-
vides the opportunity to determine/assess the suitability of the applicant/candidate for
the available post. /
- Businesses are required to implement the necessary means in the workplace in order
to improve the positive impact and reduce the negative impact of fringe benefits on
their operations. /
- Businesses are required to employ human resources managers and legal experts with
- sound knowledge/experience of legislation such as the LRA. /
- Any other relevant introduction related to the recruitment procedure as a human re-
sources activity/purpose of an interview/impact of fringe benefits on businesses/impli-
cation of the LRA on the human resources function.
Any (2 x 1) (2)
Recruitment procedure as a human resources activity
- The human resource manager (HRM) should evaluate the job/prepare a job analysis,
that includes the job specification/job description/in order to identify recruitment
needs. //
- HRM should indicate the job specification/key performance areas to attract suitable
candidates. //
- Choose the method of recruitment, such as internal/external, to reach/target the suita-
ble applicants/candidates. //
- If the external recruitment is chosen, the relevant recruitment sources should be se-
lected, such as recruitment agencies/tertiary institutions/newspapers. / /
- Vacancies can be internally advertised via internal email/word of mouth/posters/staff
notices. /V
- External recruitment should be considered if internal recruitment was unsuccessful./ /
- The advertisement should be prepared with the relevant information, such as the
name of the company, contact details, contact person. /V
- Place the advertisement in the selected media that will ensure that the best candi-
dates apply. /V
- Any other relevant answer related to the recruitment procedure as a human resources
activity.
NOTE. The procedure may be in any order.
Max (12)
Purpose of an interview
- Creates an opportunity where information about the business and applicant V can be
exchanged. /
- Gathers information about the strengths and weaknesses V of each candidate. /
- Determines a candidate’s suitability V for the job. //Determines whether the candidate
would add value V to the business. /
- Helps the employer in choosing/making an informed decision V about the most
- suitable candidate for the job. /
- Matches information provided by the applicant V to the job requirements. /
- Evaluates the skills/personal characteristics/qualities V of the applicant. /
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6.4
6.5
- Verifies to a certain degree, V the accuracy regarding the information presented on
the CV. /
- Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of an interview.
Max (12)
Impact of fringe benefits
Positives/Advantages
- Attractive fringe benefit packages / may result in higher employee retention/reduces
employee turnover. /
- Attracts qualified/skilled/experienced employees / who may positively contribute to-
wards the business goals/objectives. /
- Improves productivity V resulting in higher profitability. /
- lItincreases employee satisfaction/loyalty, / as they may be willing to go the extra
mile. /
- Businesses save money ¥ as benefits are tax deductible. /
- Fringe benefits can be used as leverage V for salary negotiations. V
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of fringe benefits
on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Businesses which cannot offer fringe benefits, V fail to attract skilled workers. /
- Businesses which offer employees different benefit plans “ may create
resentment. // Employees who receive less benefit may not be motivated V resulting in
lower productivity. /
- It can create conflict/lead to corruption V if allocated unfairly. /
- Fringe benefits are additional costs V that may result in cash flow problems. /
- Decreases business profits, / as incentive/package/remuneration costs are higher. /
- Administrative costs increase, / as benefits need to be correctly recorded for tax pur-
poses. /
- Workers only stay with the business for fringe benefits, / and may not be commit-
ted/loyal to the tasks/business. /
- Businesses have to pay advisors/attorneys V to help them create benefit plans that
comply with legislation. V
- Errors in benefit plans V may lead to costly lawsuits/regulatory fines. /
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of fringe ben-
efits on businesses.
Max (12)
Implication of the LRA on the human resources function
- Allows for the establishment of trade unions/collective bargaining/bargaining councils,
which may directly influence operations within human resources/the business. //
- Employees cannot be easily dismissed as bargaining council/CCMA processes need
to be correctly followed. /V
- Provides a framework for bilateral meetings/collective bargaining/bargaining councils
where employees, trade unions, and employers discuss matters relating to employ-
ment. /V
- Promotes orderly negotiations and employee participation in decision-making in the
workplace. //
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BUSINES Sanwaltée de-duARionS Oenntorephysics.com TRIAL EXAMINATION 2024
Protects the rights of employees/employers as outlined in the Constitution. /V
Advances economic development/social justice/labour peace. / /
Any other relevant answer related to the implication of the LRA on the human re-
sources function.
Max (10)
6.6 Conclusion
The human resources department must make use of reliable recruitment proce-
dures/processes/systems to achieve specific human resources goals. //
Candidates/applicants aim to make a strong impression of themselves in the interview
in order to secure the available post/employment. //
Businesses use fringe benefits as a supplement to the regular salaries of employees,
which makes employment packages seem more attractive. //
Human resources managers have to be continually trained on the LRA in order to
keep abreast of current/new legislations/labour legislation that may influence opera-
tions within the human resources function. /
Any other relevant conclusion related to the recruitment procedure as a human re-
sources activity/purpose of an interview/impact of fringe benefits on businesses/impli-
cation of the LRA on the human resources function.
Any (1 x 2) (2)
QUESTION 6: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM | TOTAL
Introduction 2
Recruitment procedure as a hu- 12
man resources activity
Purpose of an interview 12 Max
Impact of fringe benefits on busi- 12 32
nesses
Implication of the LRA on the 10
human resources function
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis/Interpretation 2 8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
LASO - For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 150
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