NATIONAL
SENIOR CERTIFICATE
GRADE 12
BUSINESS STUDIES P1
NOVEMBER 2024
MARKING GUIDELINE
MARKS: 150
This marking guideline consist of 28 pages.
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Business Studies Grade 12 P1 November 2024 NSC Memo (Eng)
Grade 12 Business Studies Paper 1 memorandum from the November 2024 NSC (English), 28 pages. Read online or download the free PDF.
Business Studies · Grade 12 · November 2024 NSC · 2024. Memorandum. Read online or download the PDF.
- Subject
- Business Studies
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- Grade 12
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- Year
- 2024
- Exam period
- November 2024 NSC
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- 1
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- CAPS
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Business Studies/P1 2 DBE/November 2024
NSC – Marking Guideline
NOTES TO MARKERS
PREAMBLE
The notes to markers are provided for quality assurance purposes to ensure the following:
(a) Fairness, consistency and reliability in the standard of marking
(b) Facilitate the moderation of candidates' scripts at the different levels
(c) Streamline the marking process considering the broad spectrum of markers across
the country
(d) Implement appropriate measures in the teaching, learning and assessment of the subject
at schools/institutions of learning
1. For marking and moderation purposes, the following colours are recommended:
Marker: Red
Senior Marker: Green
Deputy Chief Marker: Orange
Chief Marker: Pink
Internal Moderator: Black/Blue
DBE Moderator: Turquoise
2. Candidates' responses must be in full sentences for SECTIONS B and C.
However, this would depend on the nature of the question.
3. A comprehensive marking guideline has been provided but this is by no means
exhaustive. Due consideration should be given to an answer that is correct but:
• Uses a different expression from that which appears in the marking
guideline
• Comes from another credible source
• Original
• A different approach is used
NOTE: There is only ONE correct answer in SECTION A.
4. Take note of other relevant answers provided by candidates and allocate marks
accordingly. (In cases where the answer is unclear or indicates some
understanding, part-marks should be awarded, for example, one mark instead of
the maximum of two marks.)
5. The word 'Sub-max' is used to facilitate the allocation of marks within a question
or sub-question.
6. The purpose of circling marks (guided by 'max' in the breakdown of marks) on
the right-hand side is to ensure consistency and accuracy in the marking of
scripts as well as for calculation and moderation purposes.
7. Subtotals to questions must be written in the right-hand margin. Circle the
subtotals as indicated by the allocation of marks. This must be guided by 'max'
in the marking guidelines. Only the total for each question should appear in the
left-hand margin next to the appropriate question number.
8. In an indirect question, the theory as well as the response must be relevant and
related to the question.
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NSC – Marking Guideline
9. Correct numbering of answers to questions or sub questions is recommended in
SECTIONS A and B. However, if the numbering is incorrect, follow the sequence
of the candidate's responses. Candidates will be penalised if the latter is not
clear.
10. No additional credit must be given for repetition of facts. Indicate with an 'R'.
11. The differentiation between 'evaluate' and 'critically evaluate' can be explained
as follows:
11.1 When 'evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond in either a
positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and negative)
stance, e.g., Positive: 'COIDA eliminates time and costs spent√ on
lengthy civil court proceedings.'√
11.2 When 'critically evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond
in either a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and
negative) stance. In this instance candidates are also expected to
support their responses with more depth, e.g., 'COIDA eliminates time
and costs spent√ on lengthy civil court proceedings√, because the
employer will not be liable for compensation to the employee for injuries
sustained during working hours as long as it can be proved that the
business was not negligent.'√
NOTE: 1. The above could apply to 'analyse' as well.
2. Note the placing of the tick (√) in the allocation of marks.
12. The allocation of marks must be informed by the nature of the question, cognitive
verb used, mark allocation in the marking guideline and the context of each
question.
Cognitive verbs, such as:
12.1 Name, state, give, outline, motivate, quote, identify, recommend,
suggest, advise (list not exhaustive) do not usually require much depth
in candidates' responses. Therefore, the mark allocation for each
statement/answer appears at the end.
12.2 Define, describe, explain, discuss, elaborate, distinguish, differentiate,
compare, tabulate, analyse, evaluate, critically evaluate (list not
exhaustive) require a greater depth of understanding, application and
reasoning. Therefore, the marks must be allocated more objectively to
ensure that assessing is conducted according to established norms so
that uniformity, consistency and fairness are achieved.
13. Mark only the FIRST answer where candidates offer more than one answer for
SECTION B and C questions that require one answer.
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NSC – Marking Guideline
14. SECTION B
14.1 If, for example, FIVE facts are required, mark the candidate's FIRST FIVE
responses and ignore the rest of the responses. Indicate by drawing a line across
the unmarked portion.
NOTE: 1. This applies only to questions where the number of facts is
specified.
2. The above also applies to responses in SECTION C (where
applicable)
14.2 If two facts are written in one sentence, award the candidate FULL credit. Point
14.1 above still applies.
14.3 If candidates are required to provide their own examples/views, brainstorm this
at the marking centre to finalise alternative answers and consult with the Internal
Moderator at the DBE for approval.
14.4 Use of the cognitive verbs and allocation of marks:
14.4.1 If the number of facts are specified, questions that require candidates to
'describe/discuss/explain' may be marked as follows:
• Fact 2 marks (or as indicated in the marking guidelines)
• Explanation 1 mark (two marks will be allocated in Section C)
The 'fact' and 'explanation' are given separately in the marking guideline
to facilitate mark allocation.
14.4.2 If the number of facts required is not specified, the allocation of marks
must be informed by the nature of the question and the maximum mark
allocated in the marking guideline.
14.5 ONE mark may be awarded for answers that are easy to recall, requires
one-word answers or is quoted directly from a scenario/case study. This
applies to SECTIONS B and C in particular (where applicable).
15. SECTION C
15.1 The breakdown of the mark allocation for the essays is as follows:
Introduction
Maximum:
Content
32
Conclusion
Insight 8
TOTAL 40
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NSC – Marking Guideline
15.2 Insight consists of the following components:
Layout/Structure Is there an introduction, paragraphs and a conclusion? 2
Analysis and Is the candidate able to break down the question into 2
interpretation headings/subheadings/interpret it correctly to show
understanding of what is being asked?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
All headings addressed: 1 (One 'A')
Interpretation (16 to 32 marks): 1 (One 'A')
Synthesis Are there relevant decisions/facts/responses made based 2
on the questions?
Option 1: Only relevant facts: 2 marks (No '-S')
Where a candidate answers 50% or more (two
to four sub-questions) of the question with only
relevant facts; no '-S' appears in the left
margin. Award the maximum of TWO (2)
marks for synthesis.
Option 2: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One '-S')
Where a candidate answers less than 50%
(only one sub-question) of the question with
only OR some relevant facts; one '-S' appears
in the left margin. Award a maximum of ONE
(1) mark for synthesis.
Option 3: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One '-S')
Where a candidate answers FOUR sub-
questions, but one/two/three sub-questions
with no relevant facts; one '-S' appears in the
left margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1)
mark for synthesis.
Option 4: No relevant facts: 0 mark (Two '-S')
Where a candidate answers less than 50%
(only one sub-question) of the questions with
no relevant facts; two '-S' appears in the left
margin. Award a ZERO mark for synthesis.
Originality Is there evidence of one example in any TWO of the four 2
sub-questions, not older than two (2) years that are based
on recent information, current trends and developments?
TOTAL FOR INSIGHT: 8
TOTAL MARKS FOR FACTS: 32
TOTAL MARKS FOR ESSAY (8 + 32): 40
NOTE: 1. No marks will be awarded for contents repeated from the
introduction and conclusion.
2. The candidate forfeits marks for layout if the words
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not stated.
3. No marks will be awarded for layout, if the headings
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not supported by an
explanation.
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NSC – Marking Guideline
15.3 Indicate insight in the left-hand margin with a symbol e.g. ('L, A, -S and/or O').
15.4 The breakdown of marks is indicated at the end of the suggested answer/
marking guideline to each question.
15.5 Mark ALL relevant facts/responses until the SUB MAX/MAX mark in EACH of
the four subsections has been attained. Write SUB MAX/MAX after maximum
marks have been obtained but continue reading for originality 'O'.
15.6 At the end of each essay indicate the allocation of marks for facts and marks
for insight as follows: (L – Layout, A – Analysis, S – Synthesis, O – Originality)
as in the table below.
CONTENT MARKS
Facts 32 (Max.)
L 2
A 2
S 2
O 2
TOTAL 40
15.7 When awarding marks for facts, take note of the sub-maxima indicated,
especially if candidates do not make use of the same subheadings. Remember,
headings and subheadings are encouraged and contribute to insight
(structuring/logical flow/sequencing) and indicate clarity of thought. (See
MARK BREAKDOWN at the end of each question.)
15.8 If the candidate identifies/interprets the question INCORRECTLY, then he/she
may still obtain marks for layout.
15.9 If a different approach is used by candidates, ensure that the answers are
assessed according to the mark allocation/subheadings as indicated in the
marking guideline.
15.10 15.10.1 Award TWO marks for complete sentences. Award ONE mark for
phrases, incomplete sentences and vague answers.
15.10.2 With effect from November 2015, the TWO marks will not
necessarily appear at the end of each completed sentence. The ticks
(√) will be separated and indicated next to each fact, e.g. 'Product
development is a growth strategy √, where businesses aim to
introduce new products into existing markets.'√
This will be informed by the nature and context of the question, as
well as the cognitive verb used.
15.11 With effect from November 2017, the maximum of TWO (2) marks for facts
shown as headings in the marking guidelines, will not necessarily apply to each
question. This would also depend on the nature of the question.
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NSC – Marking Guideline
SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1 1.1.1 B √√
1.1.2 A √√
1.1.3 C √√
1.1.4 D √√
1.1.5 B √√
(5 x 2) (10)
1.2 1.2.1 employee √√
1.2.2 backward vertical √√
1.2.3 tertiary √√
1.2.4 placement √√
1.2.5 act √√
(5 x 2) (10)
1.3 1.3.1 E √√
1.3.2 D √√
1.3.3 A √√
1.3.4 J √√
1.3.5 I √√
(5 x 2) (10)
TOTAL SECTION A: 30
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 1 MARKS
1.1 10
1.2 10
1.3 10
TOTAL 30
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SECTION B
Mark the answers to the FIRST TWO questions only.
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
2.1 Types of diversification strategies
- Concentric diversification √
- Horizontal diversification √
- Conglomerate diversification √
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
(2 x 1) (2)
2.2 Advantages of intensive strategies
- Increase in sales/income/profitability due to a variety of advertising campaigns.√√
- Regular sales to existing customers may increase. √√
- Gain customer loyalty through effective promotion campaigns. √√
- Improved service delivery may positively impact/increase sales. √√
- Eliminate competitors and dominate market prices. √√
- Decrease in price could influence customers to buy more products. √√
- Businesses can have more control over the prices of products/services. √√
- Enables the business to focus on markets/well-researched quality products that
satisfy the needs of consumers. √√
- Increased market share reduces the business's vulnerability to actions of
competitors. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of intensive strategies.
Max (6)
2.3 PESTLE factor
2.3.1 PESTLE factor from the scenario
Environmental √√ (2)
2.3.2 Ways in which businesses can deal with the challenges posed by the
environmental factors
- Chemicals/Ingredients should be clearly indicated on labels/packaging to
inform customers about possible side effects/correct use of products. √√
- MM/Businesses implemented cost effective measures to dispose of waste. √√
- Implement recycling measures to prevent pollution of the environment/Use
packaging that is re-usable/recyclable. √√
- Engage in environmentally sustainable practices such as the conservation/
preservation of natural resources. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which MM/businesses can deal
with the challenges posed by environmental as a PESTLE factor.
NOTE: Accept relevant facts even if the PESTLE factor was incorrectly
identified as an answer in QUESTION 2.3.1.
Max (4)
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2.4 Types of defensive strategies
2.4.1 Divestiture √√
- Disposing/Selling some assets/divisions that are no longer profitable/productive. √
- Selling off divisions/product lines with slow growth potential. √
- Decreasing the number of shareholders by selling ownership. √
- Paying off debts by selling unproductive assets. √
- Withdrawing/Divesting their investment share in another business. √
- Any other relevant answer related to divestiture as a type of defensive strategy.
Strategy (2)
Discussion (1)
Submax (3)
2.4.2 Retrenchment √√
- Terminating employment contracts/Letting go of employees for operational
reasons/to reduce costs/expenses.√
- Decreasing the number of product lines/closing certain departments may result
in some workers becoming redundant. √
- Any other relevant answer related to retrenchment as a type of defensive
strategy.
Strategy (2)
Discussion (1)
Submax (3)
2.4.3 Liquidation √√
- Selling all assets/Bringing the business activities to an end to pay creditors due
to lack of capital. √
- Selling the entire business in order to pay shareholders a fair price for their
shares. √
- Allowing creditors to apply for forced liquidation in order to have their claims
settled. √
- Any other relevant answer related to liquidation as a type of defensive strategy.
Strategy (2)
Discussion (1)
Submax (3)
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
Max (6)
2.5 Broad-Based Black Economic Empowerment/BBBEE Act
2.5.1 BBBEE pillar from scenario
Management control √√ (2)
2.5.2 Purpose of the Broad-Based Black Economic Empowerment/BBBEE Act
- BBBEE Act enables wealth to be spread more broadly √ across all population
groups. √
- Outlines areas that would give the government a platform √ for bringing
equitable spread of wealth. √
- Allows for the development √ of Codes of Good Practice. √
- Empowers the Minister to issue Codes of Good Practice √ and publish
transformation charters. √
- Establishes the Black Economic Empowerment Advisory Council √, which
addresses matters related to black empowerment. √
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- Creates capacity within the broader economic landscape at all levels √ through
the implementation of the BBBEE pillars. √
- BBBEE Act aims at targeting inequality √ in the South African economy. √
- Increases the number of black people √ that manage/control South African
businesses. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of the BBBEE Act.
Max (4)
2.6 Ways in which businesses can comply with the Consumer Protection Act/
CPA
- Disclose prices √ of all products on sale. √
- Provide/Conduct adequate training √ to staff/stakeholders on the CPA.√
- All agreements must provide for a five-day √ cooling off period. √
- Ensure that goods/services offered √ are standardised/of the same quality. √
- Comply with the requirements √ regarding promotional competitions. √
- Comply with requirements regarding the display of information √ on labels/
packaging. √
- Display the name of the business √ on all business documents, such as
invoices/contracts. √
- Bundling of goods/services √ should benefit consumers, such as offering a cell
phone and a tablet at a special price. √
- Implement measures that will facilitate complaints √ by using suggestion
boxes. √
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which businesses can comply with
the CPA.
Max (4)
2.7 Impact of the Labour Relations Act/LRA
Positives/Advantages
- Promotes a healthy relationship √ between the employer and employees. √
- Protects the rights of businesses √ in labour relations issues. √
- Labour disputes are settled quicker √ and are less expensive. √
- Workplace forums can add value to businesses √ if it functions properly. √
- Protects employers who embark on lawful lockouts √ when negotiations
between parties fail. √
- LRA provides for the principles of collective bargaining √ and puts structures in
place with which disputes in the workplace can be settled. √
- Provides sound dispute resolution processes √ through consensus between
organised labour, businesses, and the state. √
- Provides specific guidelines for employers √ on correct and fair disciplinary
procedures. √
- Employers and employees have guidelines √ regarding correct and fair
dismissal procedures. √
- Provides a mechanism/framework √ such as statutory councils/collective
bargaining/CCMA. √
- Employers are entitled to compensation from the Labour Court √ if they suffered
damages as a result of unprotected strikes. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of the LRA
on businesses.
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AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Reduced global competitiveness √ due to lower productivity. √
- Productivity may decrease √ if employees are allowed to participate in the
activities of trade unions during work time. √
- Costs of labour increases √ because of legal strikes. √
- Employers may not get a court interdict √ to stop a strike. √
- Employers may have to disclose information about workplace issues to union
representatives √ that could be the core of their competitive advantage. √
- Employers may not dismiss employees at will, √ as procedures have to be
followed. √
- Many employees take advantage of the right to strike √ without acknowledging
their responsibilities. √
- Many employees and employers √ do not understand/respect the Labour
Relations Act. √
- Strike actions always result in loss of production √ for which employers may not
claim. √
- Some trade unions may not promote the mandate of their members √ but
embark on industrial action, which is harmful to labour relations between
employers and employees. √
- Some businesses may feel that the LRA gives employees too much power √ as
it creates lengthy procedures such as consulting with workplace forums. √
- Labour disputes and bargaining council processes become disruptive/time-
consuming √ and can lead to a decrease in productivity/profitability in
businesses. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of the
LRA on businesses.
Max (6)
2.8 Strategic management process
OPTION 1
- Have a clear vision/mission statement/measurable/realistic objective in
place. √√
- Identify opportunities/weaknesses/strengths/threats by conducting
environmental scanning/situational analysis. √√
- Tools available for environmental scanning may include a SWOT analysis/
Porter's Five Forces model/PESTLE analysis/industrial analysis tools. √√
- Formulate alternative strategies to respond to the challenges. √√
- Develop (an) action plan(s), including the tasks to be done/deadlines to be
met/resources to be procured. √√
- Implement selected strategies by communicating it to all stakeholders/
organising business resources/motivating staff. √√
- Continuously evaluate/monitor/measure strategies in order to take corrective
action. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.
OR
OPTION 2
- Review/Analyse/Re-examine their vision/mission statement. √√
- Conduct an environmental analysis using models such as SWOT/ PESTLE/
Porter's Five Forces. √√
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- Formulate a strategy, such as defensive/retrenchment strategy. √√
- Implement a strategy, using a template such as an action plan. √√
- Control/Evaluate/Monitor the implemented strategy to identify gaps/deviations
in implementation. √√
- Take corrective action to ensure goals/objectives are met. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.
Max (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 2 MARKS
2.1 2
2.2 6
2.3.1 2
2.3.2 4
2.4 6
2.5.1 2
2.5.2 4
2.6 4
2.7 6
2.8 4
TOTAL 40
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QUESTION 3: BUSINESS OPERATIONS
3.1 Sources of internal recruitment
- Internal e-mails/Intranet/Web sites to staff. √
- Word of mouth/Staff meetings. √
- Business newsletter/Circulars to staff.√
- Internal/management referrals. √
- Notice board of the business. √
- Internal bulletins. √
- Recommendation of current employees. √
- Head hunting within the business/organisational database. √
- Any other relevant answer related to sources of internal recruitment.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only.
(4 x 1) (4)
3.2 Role of the interviewer before the interview
- Book and prepare the venue for the interview. √√
- Inform all shortlisted candidates about the date and place of the interview. √√
- Set the interview date and ensure that all interviews take place on the same
date, if possible. √√
- Notify all panel members conducting the interview about the date and place of
the interview. √√
- The interviewer should develop a core set of questions based on the
skills/knowledge/ability required. √√
- Check/read the application/verify the CV of every candidate for anything that
may need to be explained. √√
- Plan the programme for the interview and determine the time that should be
allocated to each candidate. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the role of the interviewer before the
interview.
Max (4)
3.3 Employment contract
3.3.1 Legal requirements of an employment contract from the scenario
- Management explained the terms and conditions of the employment contract to
him. √
- Thabo was given an opportunity to read the contract before signing it.√
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Only award marks for responses that are quoted from the
scenario.
(2 x 1) (2)
3.3.2 Reasons for the termination of an employment contract
- The employer may dismiss an employee for a valid reason(s) such as
unsatisfactory job performance/misconduct. √√
- Employer may no longer have work for redundant employees/cannot fulfil the
contract/is restructuring. √√
- The employer may retrench some employees due to insolvency/may not be
able to pay the employees. √√
- Employees may decide to leave/resign voluntarily for better job
opportunities. √√
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- An employee may have reached the pre-determined age for retirement. √√
- Incapacity of an employee to work due to illness/injuries. √√
- By a mutual agreement between the employer and employee. √√
- The duration of the employment contract expires/comes to an end. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the reasons for the termination of an
employment contract.
Max (4)
3.4 Implications of the Employment Equity Act/EEA on the human resources
function
- Offer equal pay √ for work of equal value. √
- Compile employment equity plans √ that indicate how they will implement
affirmative action. √
- Ensures that affirmative action promotes √ diversity in the workplace. √
- The human resources manager must treat employees fairly √ and
promote/provide equal opportunities in the workplace.√
- Retrain/Develop/Train designated groups √ through skills development
programmes. √
- Define the appointment process clearly √ to ensure all parties are well
informed. √
- Display a summary of the Act √ where employees can clearly see it/have
access to it. √
- Assign a manager to ensure that the employment equity plan √ will be
implemented/regularly monitored. √
- Report to the Department of Labour on the progress √ in the implementation of
the equity plan. √
- Conduct medical/psychological tests fairly √ to employees/when deemed
necessary. √
- Ensures that the workplace represents the demographics √ of the country at all
levels. √
- Restructure/Analyse current employment policies/practices/procedures √ to
accommodate designated groups. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the implications of the EEA on the human
resources function.
Max (6)
3.5 Benefits of a good quality management system
- Effective customer services are rendered, resulting in increased customer
satisfaction. √√
- Time and resources are used efficiently. √√
- Productivity increases through proper time management/using high quality
resources. √√
- Products/Services are constantly improved resulting in increased levels of
customer satisfaction. √√
- Vision/Mission/Business goals may be achieved. √√
- A business has a competitive advantage over its competitors. √√
- Regular training will continuously improve the quality of employees' skills/
knowledge. √√
- Employers and employees will have a healthy working relationship resulting in
happy/productive workers. √√
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- Increased market share/Financial sustainability as more customers improves
profitability. √√
- Improves business image as there are less defects/returns. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of a good quality management
system.
Max (4)
3.6 Quality indicators of the business function
3.6.1 Financial function √√ (2)
3.6.2 Other quality indicators of the financial function
- Obtain capital √ from the most suitable/available/reliable sources. √
- Negotiate better interest rates √ in order to keep financial cost down. √
- Draw up budgets √ to ensure sufficient application of monetary resources. √
- Analyse strategies √ to increase profitability. √
- Invest surplus funds √ to create sources of passive income. √
- Implement financial control measures/systems √ to prevent fraud. √
- Implement credit granting/debt collecting policies √ to monitor cash flow. √
- Draw up accurate financial statements √ timeously/regularly. √
- Accurately analyse and interpret √ financial information. √
- Invest in strategies √ that will assist the business to remain profitable. √
- Avoid over/under-capitalisation √ so that financial resources will be utilised
effectively. √
- Any other relevant answer related to other quality indicators of the financial
function.
NOTE: 1. Do not award marks for a response that is quoted from the
scenario.
2. Accept relevant facts even if the financial function was
incorrectly identified as an answer in QUESTION 3.6.2.
Max (4)
3.7 Impact of total client/customer satisfaction as a total quality management/TQM
element on large businesses
Positive/Advantages
- Large businesses use market research/customer surveys √ to measure/monitor
customer satisfaction/reaction time to changing consumer demand/analyse
customers' needs. √
- Continuously promote √ a positive business image. √
- May achieve a state of total client/customer satisfaction, √ if businesses follow
sound business practices that incorporates all stakeholders. √
- Strive to understand/fulfil customer expectations √ by aligning cross-functional
teams across critical processes. √
- Ensures that cross-functional teams understand their core competencies √ and
develop/strengthen it. √
- May lead to higher customer retention/loyalty √ and businesses may be able to
charge higher prices. √
- Large businesses may be able to gain access √ to the global market. √
- May lead to increased √ competitiveness/profitability. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of total
client/customer satisfaction as a TQM element on large businesses.
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AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Large businesses that become complacent with the existing customer
satisfaction/target market √ may experience limited long term growth potential. √
- Employees who seldom come into contact with customers √ often do not have a
clear idea of what will satisfy their needs. √
- Monopolistic businesses have an increased bargaining power √ so they do not
necessarily have to please customers. √
- Not all employees may be involved/committed √ to total client/customer
satisfaction. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of total
client/customer satisfaction as a TQM element on large businesses.
Max (6)
3.8 Ways in which total quality management/TQM can reduce the cost of quality
- Introduce quality circles to discuss ways of improving the quality of their
work/workmanship. √√
- Schedule activities to eliminate duplication of tasks. √√
- Share responsibilities for quality output amongst management and workers. √√
- Train employees at all levels, so that everyone understands their roles in
quality management. √√
- Develop work systems that empower employees to find new ways of
improving quality. √√
- Work closely with suppliers to improve the quality of raw materials/inputs. √√
- Improve communication about the quality challenges/deviations, so that
everyone can learn from past experiences. √√
- Reduce investment on expensive, but ineffective inspection procedures in the
production process. √√
- Implement pro-active maintenance programmes for equipment/machinery to
reduce/eliminate breakdowns. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which TQM can reduce the cost
of quality.
Max (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 3 MARKS
3.1 4
3.2 4
3.3.1 2
3.3.2 4
3.4 6
3.5 4
3.6 6
3.7 6
3.8 4
TOTAL 40
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QUESTION 4: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS
4.1 Provisions of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act/BCEA
- Regulation of working time/Ordinary hours of work/overtime/meal intervals and
rest periods/Sunday work/public holidays. √
- Leave/annual/sick/family responsibility/maternity/paternity/parental. √
- Particulars of employment and remuneration. √
- Termination of employment. √
- Prohibition of employment of children and forced labour. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the provisions of the BCEA.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only.
(4 x 1) (4)
4.2 Rights of consumers in terms of the National Credit Act/NCA
Consumers have a right to:
- Apply for credit and to be free from discrimination. √√
- Obtain reasons for credit being refused.√√
- Receive pre-agreement documentation/credit quote that is valid for 7 days
before concluding any credit transaction.√√
- Fair and responsible marketing by the credit provider. √√
- Surrender/Return goods to the credit provider in order to settle the outstanding
amount/debt. √√
- Apply for debt review/counselling if the consumers cannot afford to repay their
debts. √√
- Receive information in plain and understandable language.√√
- Receive documents/statements as required by the Act.√√
- Access and challenge credit records and information.√√
- Receive protection of their personal information. √√
- Receive protection from being held accountable for the use of their credit facility
after they reported the loss/theft. √√
- Refuse a credit limit increase. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the rights of consumers in terms of the
NCA.
Max (6)
4.3 Steps in strategy evaluation
4.3.1 Steps in strategy evaluation from the scenario
- SB examined the underlying basis of their strategy throughout the
implementation process. √
- They also analysed the impact of the implemented strategy on their internal and
external environments. √
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Only award marks for responses that are quoted from the
scenario.
(2 x 1) (2)
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4.3.2 Other steps in strategy evaluation
- Look forward and backwards √ into the implementation process. √
- Compare the expected performance √ with the actual performance. √
- Determine the reasons for deviations √ and analyse these reasons. √
- Take corrective action √ so that deviations may be corrected. √
- Set specific dates √ for control and follow up. √
- Draw up a table √ of the advantages and disadvantages of a strategy. √
- Decide on the desired outcome√ as envisaged/expected when strategies were
implemented. √
- Any other relevant answer related to other steps in strategy evaluation.
NOTE: 1. Accept steps in any order.
2. Do not award marks for responses that were quoted in
QUESTION 4.3.1.
Max (4)
4.4 Application of power of suppliers as a force of Porters Five Forces model
- Assess the power of the suppliers in influencing prices. √√
- Suppliers that deliver high quality/ unique/scarce product may have power over
the business. √√
- The more powerful the suppliers, the less control the business has over
them. √√
- The smaller the number of suppliers, the more powerful they may be as the
choice of suppliers may be limited. √√
- Identify the kind of power suppliers' have in terms of the quality of products/
services/reliability/ability to make prompt deliveries. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to how businesses could apply power of
suppliers as a force of Porters Five Forces model to analyse their position in the
market environment.
Max (4)
BUSINESS OPERATIONS
4.5 Aspects that should be included in an employment contract
- Personal details of the employee. √
- Details of the business/employer such as the name and address. √
- Job title/Position. √
- Job description such as duties/responsibilities and working conditions. √
- Job specification such as formal qualifications and willingness to travel. √
- Date of employment/Commencement of employment. √
- Place where employee will spend most of his/her working time. √
- Hours of work such as normal time and overtime. √
- Remuneration such as weekly or monthly pay. √
- Benefits/Fringe benefits/Perks/Allowances. √
- Leave such as sick/maternity/annual/adoption leave. √
- Employee deductions such as compulsory/non-compulsory. √
- Duration/Period of employment contract/Details of termination/Expiry date of
employment contract. √
- Probation period. √
- Signatures of both the employer and employee. √
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- List of documents that form part of the contract such as appointment letter/code
of conduct/ethics. √
- Disciplinary policy such as rules/disciplinary procedure for unacceptable
behaviour. √
- Any other relevant answer related to aspects that should be included in an
employment contract.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only.
(4 x 1) (4)
4.6 Components of a job analysis from the scenario
COMPONENTS OF A JOB MOTIVATIONS
ANALYSIS
1. Job specification √√ MC indicated that applicants must have a
diploma in construction.√
2. Job description √√ The successful candidate will compile
progress reports on assigned projects.√
Sub max (4) Sub max (2)
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Award marks for components of job analysis even if the
motivations were incomplete.
3. Do not award marks for motivations if the components of
job analysis were incorrectly identified.
4. Accept responses in any order.
Max (6)
4.7 Role of quality circles as part of continuous improvement to processes and
systems
- Solve problems related to quality √ and implement improvements. √
- Investigate problems √ and suggest solutions to management. √
- Ensure that there is no duplication √ of activities/tasks in the workplace. √
- Make suggestions for improving processes √ and systems in the workplace. √
- Improve the quality of products/services/productivity √ through regular reviews of
quality processes. √
- Monitor/Reinforce strategies √ to improve the smooth running of business
operations. √
- Increase employees' morale/motivation √ to boost the team spirit in achieving
organisational goals. √
- Contribute towards the improvement √ and development of the organisation.√
- Reduce costs of redundancy √ and wasteful efforts in the long run. √
- Increase the demand √ for products/services of the business. √
- Create harmony √ and high performance in the workplace. √
- Build a healthy workplace relationship √ between the employer and employee. √
- Improve employees' loyalty/commitment √ to the organisational goals. √
- Improve employees' communication √ at all levels of the business. √
- Develop a positive attitude/sense of involvement √ in decision-making processes
of the services offered. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the role of quality circles as part of
continuous improvement to processes and systems.
Max (6)
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4.8 Quality indicators of the general management function
- Develop/Implement/Monitor effective strategic plans. √√
- Efficient organisation/allocation of business resources to provide for the
successful achievement of long-term and short-term plans. √√
- Structured standards and norms should be in place so that control mechanisms
can be implemented. √√
- Learn about/understand changes in the business environment on an on-going
basis. √√
- Effectively communicate shared vision, mission and values. √√
- Set direction and establish priorities for their business. √√
- Be prepared to set an example of the behaviour that is expected from
employees in terms of ethics as well as productivity. √√
- Be proactive and always seeks to improve competitive advantage over
competitors. √√
- Ensure that all departments/the business meet their deadlines/targets. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the quality indicators of the general
management function.
Max (4)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 4 MARKS
4.1 4
4.2 6
4.3.1 2
4.3.2 4
4.4 4
4.5 4
4.6 6
4.7 6
4.8 4
TOTAL 40
TOTAL SECTION B: 80
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SECTION C
Mark the answers to the FIRST question only.
QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (LEGISLATION)
5.1 Introduction
- A SETA is a vocational skills training organisation that identifies skills shortages
that are needed in different industries. √
- The Skills Development Act was introduced to redress the imbalances of the
past. √
- The SDA enables South Africans to gain access to skills training opportunities
that have long-term benefits. √
- Businesses that comply with the SDA are able to create a good public image
and address skills shortages in the South African workplace. √
- Any other relevant introduction related to the role of SETAs in supporting the
Skills Development Act/purpose of the SDA/impact of the SDA on
businesses/ways in which businesses can comply with the SDA.
Any (2 x 1) (2)
5.2 Role of SETAs in supporting the Skills Development Act/SDA
- Report to the Director General. √√
- Promote and establish learnerships. √√
- Collect levies and pay out grants as required. √√
- Provide accreditation for skills development facilitators. √√
- Register learnership agreements/learning programmes. √√
- Approve workplace skills plans and annual training reports. √√
- Monitor/Evaluate the actual training by service providers. √√
- Allocate grants to employers/education/training providers. √√
- Oversee training in different sectors of the South African economy. √√
- Develop sector skills plans in line with the National Skills Development
Strategy. √√
- Draw up skills development plans for their specific economic sectors. √√
- Provide training material/programmes for skills development facilitators. √√
- Pay out grants to businesses that are complying with the requirements of the
Skills Development Act. √√
- Identify suitable workplaces for practical work experience. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the role of SETAs in supporting the SDA.
Max (12)
5.3 Purpose of the Skills Development Act/SDA
- Develops the skills of people in South Africa √ in order to improve productivity. √
- Invests in education and training √ of the South African workforce. √
- Improves the chances of getting a job √ for previously disadvantaged people. √
- Encourages workers to participate √ in learning programmes. √
- Redresses imbalances of the past√ through education and training. √
- Encourages businesses to improve the skills √ of their workers. √
- Provides the systematic implementation of strategies √ on a national, sector and
workplace basis. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of the SDA.
Max (10)
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5.4 Impact of Skills Development Act/SDA on businesses
Positives/Advantages
- Increases the number of skilled employees √ in areas where these skills are
scarce. √
- Trains employees √ to improve productivity in the workplace. √
- Businesses could become globally√ more competitive. √
- On-going skills development/learning/acquisition of new skills are encouraged √
to sustain the improvement of skills development. √
- Increases investment in education and training √ in the labour market. √
- Increases the return on investment √ in education and training. √
- Improves employment opportunities √ and labour movement. √
- Self-employment √ and entrepreneurship are promoted. √
- Workplace discrimination √ can be addressed through training. √
- Workplace is used as an active learning environment √ where employees can
gain practical job experience. √
- Businesses may claim back some of the costs of training √ as a refund from
relevant SETAs. √
- Improves quality of products/service delivery √ as the business employs more
skilled workers. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of the SDA
on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- The SDA process is prescriptive/requires a large amount of paperwork/
administration, √ that can cost time/money. √
- Skills Development Levy could be an extra burden √ to financially struggling
businesses. √
- It may be monitored/controlled by government departments √ that do not have
education/training as their key priorities. √
- Many courses offered by companies may not have unit standards √ that relate to
the course content. √
- Skills programmes may not always address √ the training needs of employees. √
- Many service providers that offer training services √ are not SAQA accredited. √
- Many businesses may not support √ this government initiative. √
- Implementation of the SDA can be difficult √ to monitor and control. √
- Employees are expected to attend learnerships during work hours √ that could
affect the production process/productivity. √
- Costly for businesses to employ a person √ to implement/manage/control
learnerships. √
- The time/money spent on improving employee skills is wasted √ if they leave the
business. √
- Only companies with a staff payroll over R500 000 per annum √ can claim the
Skills Development levy. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of the
SDA on businesses.
Max (12)
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5.5 Ways in which businesses can comply with the Skills Development Act/SDA
- Businesses/Employers who collect PAYE should register with the relevant
SETAs. √√
- One per cent (1%) of an employer's payroll must be paid over to the SETA
through SARS. √√
- Businesses should register with SARS in the area in which their business is
classified (in terms of the SETA). √√
- Employers should submit a workplace skills plan and provide evidence that it
was implemented. √√
- Businesses with more than 50 employees must appoint a skills development
facilitator. √√
- Assess the skills of employees to determine areas in which skills development is
needed. √√
- Encourage employees to participate in learnerships and other training
programmes. √√
- Provide all employees with the opportunity to improve their skills. √√
- Display a summary of the SDA in the business where it is visible to all
employees. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to ways in which businesses can comply with
the SDA.
Max (12)
5.6 Conclusion
- Businesses should register with SETAs for training programmes that are
accredited with the South African Qualification Authorities (SAQA).√√
- The SDA makes provisions for the establishment and the effective functioning of
SETAs. √√
- The Skills Development Act plays an important role in ensuring that the South
African workforce is skilled and encourage employee participation in lifelong
learning. √√
- Businesses are encouraged to comply with this Act in order to avoid penalties
and an increased financial burden on businesses.√√
- Any other relevant conclusion related to the role of SETAs in supporting the
Skills Development Act/purpose of the SDA/impact of the SDA on
businesses/ways in which businesses can comply with the SDA.
Any (1 x 2) (2)
[40]
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QUESTION 5: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Role of SETAs in supporting the
12
Skills Development Act
Purpose of the SDA 10 Max
Impact of the SDA on businesses 12 32
Ways in which businesses can
12
comply with the SDA
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis/Interpretation 2 8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
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QUESTION 6: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (HUMAN RESOURCES FUNCTION)
6.1 Introduction
- The human resources manager is responsible for selecting and appointing
qualified and competent employees to avoid fruitless expenditure. √
- Businesses use different salary determination methods to appropriately
compensate their employees according to the kind of work done or tasks they
perform. √
- Employees receive fringe benefits over and above their normal salaries and
wages, which often improves their overall job satisfaction. √
- The induction of new employees into the work environment provides introductory
training to allow for a smooth transition into the new work environment. √
- Any other relevant introduction related to the selection procedure/salary
determination methods/impact of fringe benefits on businesses/benefits of
induction for businesses.
Any (2 x 1) (2)
6.2 Selection procedure
OPTION 1
- Determine fair assessment criteria on which selection will be based. √√
- Applicants must submit the application forms/curriculum vitae and certified
copies of personal documents/IDs/proof of qualifications. √√
- Sort the received documents/CVs according to the assessment/selection
criteria. √√
- Screen/Determine which applications meet the minimum job requirements and
separate these from the rest. √√
- Preliminary interviews are conducted if many suitable applications were
received/to identify suitable applicants. √√
- Reference checks/Vetting process should be made/followed to verify work
experience/criminal records/credit records/qualifications on the CV. √√
- Compile a shortlist of potential candidates identified. √√
- Shortlisted candidates may be subjected to various types of selection tests
such as skills tests. √√
- Invite shortlisted candidates for an interview. √√
- A written offer is made to the selected candidate. √√
- Inform unsuccessful applicants about the outcome of their application/Some
advertisements indicate the deadline for informing only successful
candidates. √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the selection procedure as a human
resources activity.
OR
OPTION 2
- Receive documentation such as application forms and sort it according to the
criteria of the job. √√
- Evaluate CVs and create a shortlist/Screen the applicants. √√
- Check information in the CVs and contact references. √√
- Conduct preliminary sifting interviews to identify applicants who are not suitable
for the job, although they meet all requirements. √√
- Assess/Test candidates who have applied for senior positions/to ensure the
best candidate is chosen. √√
- Conduct interviews with shortlisted candidates. √√
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- Offer employment in writing to the selected candidate(s). √√
- Any other relevant answer related to the selection procedure as a human
resources activity.
NOTE: The procedure may be in any order.
Max (12)
6.3 Salary determination methods
6.3.1 Piecemeal √√
- Workers are paid according to the number √ of items/units produced/action
performed.√
- Workers are not remunerated for the number of hours worked, √ regardless of
how long it takes them to make the items.√
- Mostly used in factories √ particularly in the textile/technology industries.√
- Any other relevant answer related to piecemeal as a salary determination
method.
Method (2)
Explanation (4)
Submax (6)
6.3.2 Time-related √√
- Workers are paid according to the amount of time/hours √ they spend at
work/on a task.√
- Workers with the same experience/qualifications √ are paid on salary scales
regardless of the amount of work done.√
- Many private and public sector businesses √ use this method.√
- Any other relevant answer related to time-related as a salary determination
method.
Method (2)
Explanation (4)
Submax (6)
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
Max (12)
6.4 Impact of fringe benefits
Positives/Advantages
- Attractive fringe benefit packages √ may result in higher employee retention/
reduces employee turnover. √
- Attracts qualified/skilled/experienced employees √ who may positively contribute
towards the business goals/objectives. √
- Improves productivity √ resulting in higher profitability. √
- It increases employee satisfaction/loyalty √ as they may be willing to go the
extra mile. √
- Businesses save money √ as benefits are tax deductible. √
- Fringe benefits can be used as leverage √ for salary negotiations. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of fringe
benefits on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
- Businesses which cannot offer fringe benefits √ fail to attract skilled workers. √
- Businesses which offer employees different benefit plans √ may create
resentment to those who receive less benefit resulting in lower productivity. √
- It can create conflict/lead to corruption √ if allocated unfairly. √
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- Fringe benefits are additional costs √ that may result in cash flow problems. √
- Decreases business profits, √ as incentive/package/remuneration costs are
higher. √
- Administrative costs increase √ as benefits need to be correctly recorded for tax
purposes. √
- Workers only stay with the business for fringe benefits, √ and may not be
committed/loyal to the tasks/business. √
- Businesses have to pay advisors/attorneys √ to help them create benefit plans
that comply with legislation. √
- Errors in benefit plans √ may lead to costly lawsuits/regulatory fines. √
- Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of
fringe benefits on businesses.
Max (12)
6.5 Benefits of induction
- Allows new employees to settle in quickly and work effectively.√√
- Ensures that new employees understand rules and restrictions in the
business.√√
- New employees may establish relationships with fellow employees at different
levels.√√
- Make new employees feel at ease in the workplace, which reduces anxiety/
insecurity/fear.√√
- The results obtained during the induction process provide a base for focussed
training.√√
- Increases quality of performance/productivity which promotes the effective use
of working methods/resources. √√
- Minimises/Decreases the need for on-going training and development.√√
- Employees will be familiar with organisational structures, such as who are their
supervisors/low level managers.√√
- Opportunities are created for new employees to experience/explore different
departments.√√
- New employees will understand their role/responsibilities concerning safety
regulations and rules.√√
- New employees will know the layout of the building/factory/offices which saves
production time.√√
- Learn more about the business so that new employees understand their roles/
responsibilities to be more efficient.√√
- Company policies are communicated regarding conduct and procedures/safety
and security/employment contract/conditions of employment/working
hours/leave. √√
- Realistic expectations for new employees as well as the business are
created.√√
- New employees may feel part of the team resulting in positive morale and
motivation.√√
- Employees may have a better understanding of business policies regarding
ethical/professional conduct/procedures/CSR.√√
- Reduces the staff turnover as new employees have been inducted properly.√√
- Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of induction for businesses.
Max (10)
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6.6 Conclusion
- Competent employees who have been selected with the use of prescribed
requirements and criteria will add value to businesses. √√
- Businesses can avoid unnecessary disputes by paying the employees according
to the appropriate salary determination methods. √√
- Attractive fringe benefits encourage employees to work hard towards achieving
business goals. √√
- A well-designed induction programme allows for new employees to gain a better
understanding of the requirements of the new job. √√
- Any other relevant conclusion related to the selection procedure/salary
determination methods/impact of fringe benefits on businesses/benefits of
induction for businesses.
Any (1 x 2) (2)
[40]
QUESTION 6: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION
DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Selection procedure 12
Salary determination methods 12
Impact of fringe benefits on Max
12
businesses 32
Benefits of induction for
10
businesses
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis/Interpretation 2 8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
LASO – For each component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.
TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 150
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